RevRon wrote:
Sexual sin ties people together. It doesn't affect an individual, it affects all who are joined to that perversion. Did God destroy cities for gluttony? NO! For chocolate? NO! Homosexuality is a great perversion that not only affects the body, but the mind as well. Did God say he would give you a reprobate mind for eating to much chocolate? NO! It all starts with "CREATION", we were created to multiply and bring as many to the truth of Jesus Christ as possible. The union of one man and one woman under God makes them ONE! Are there levels, or degrees of sin? ABSOLUTELY!!! All sin is bad and against the Living God, but sexual sin joins many to the curses and perverse life away from God. Just as God's gifts have levels, sins against God have levels, and some that provoke Him to great anger. Choosing a lifestyle apart from the life God intended for you is much different than slipping out a cuss word that one hears daily from the world. Repentance is the key to your answer, if you walk in repentance, turning from your wrong He forgives, but if not He doesn't.
Sexual sin ties people together. It doesn't affect... (
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Rev, I appreciate your taking the time to respond. You present some interesting points. However, I must disagree with you on there being "... levels, or degrees of sin." I refer you to Paul and James. The answer to this is two-fold. First, we find that in Gods eyes, any sin, no matter how small brings about Gods just condemnation on the sinner. Quoting from Deuteronomy in the Old Testament, Paul writes to the Galatians: For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them (Galatians 3:10). Similarly James writes: For whoever shall keep the whole law, and yet stumble in one point, he is guilty of all (James 2:10). Then, there is the verse written by Paul, "For ALL have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God." (Romans 2:23; my emphasis on "all")
ANY sin, no matter what it is, separates us from God and brings His condemnation upon us (Isaiah 59:2). Any sin, no matter what it is, makes us dependant on the blood of Jesus for salvation (1 John 1:7). In this sense we find that all sins are equal in that they all destroy our relationship with God and bring about a need for reconciliation.
Regarding the sin(s) of Sodom, the text of Genesis 19 implies that God approved of Lot's behavior, even though he made an offer of his virgin daughters to be raped. This approval would have been extended to Lot's family as well. But, God apparently had a fierce anger directed at the other inhabitants of the town. He destroyed Sodom with fire and brimstone (sulfur) dumped from above.
According to the Bible, he killed all of the men and women of Sodom. It is surmised that the killing included all the innocent children, infants, newborns, etc. who lived in the city. This is one more example of a theme that runs throughout the Bible: transferring the punishment from guilty people to innocent people. Nowadays, this is called "scapegoating" and is condemned by all major religions. But, I digress.
What is/are the reason(s) as to why God destroyed the city. Allow me to offer the following observations and theories. The people of Sodom:
Engaged in consensual homosexual acts -- a same-sex orgy in this case. This is the belief of most conservative Christians. This option seems unlikely because:
Genesis 19:5 said that all of the men (and, as some preachers have said, perhaps all of the "people") of Sodom formed the mob outside Lot's house and demanded to "know" the strangers (in this case, angels). While the Bible does say "... ALL of the men ...," there was Lot; the lone heterosexual holdout.
Remember, according to the Bible, Lot had lived in the city for several years. It can be argued that, after that long a period of time, that Lot would've HAD to have known if ALL of the men in Sodom were homosexuals. If that were the case, as the Bible says, why would Lot have offered to sacrifice his daughters to the mob if ALL of the men were homosexual?
Finally, as noted above, if the men of Sodom were ALL homosexuals, there would be few if any children and widows in the city; as are mentioned elsewhere in Biblical references to Sodom.
They were uncharitable and abusive to strangers, the poor, sick, and disadvantaged. In that society, a person had a very strong obligation to protect any guests in their home. Many Christians believe that this is the meaning behind the story of the destruction of Sodom. This belief is buttressed in the many other references to Sodom in the Bible, as well as Jewish literature.
The local men wanted to humiliate their visitors by engaging in an act of sexual degradation and male rape...These are acts of violence that are committed by parties seeking to show their hatred for those they are degrading. It is not an act of love or of caring. Some theologians suggest that the sin of Sodom was the threat of mass rape.
The men of Sodom wanted to engage in bestiality -- having sex with members of another species. The mob may have wanted to rape the angels; angels are not human beings; they are of a different species. This would be consistent with the frequently mistranslated verse in Jude about the men of Sodom going after "other flesh" or "strange flesh." The men wanted to adsorb the power of the angels. In ancient times, 'sacred sex' was very common. People would engage in sexual intercourse with temple prostitutes who represented a god or goddess. By doing so, the people believed that they would receive a blessing from the deity. If the people of Sodom realized that angels sent by God were present in their city, the men of Sodom may have concluded that raping the angels might give them supernatural powers.
A common practice in biblical apologetics is to let the Bible interpret itself. Looking elsewhere in the Bible for references to Sodom may help us determine which of the above interpretations is/are correct.
The interpretation of Genesis 19 as referring to a homosexual sin has been traced to the 11th century (1,000's), by the Italian ascetic, St. Peter Damian. Until recently, the vast majority of Christian theologians accepted this explanation. In fact, the English word sodomy, which popularly means either homosexual or heterosexual anal intercourse, was derived from the name of the city. The term "sodomy" is also used in some ancient laws to refer to a variety of sexual behaviors in addition to heterosexual intercourse. Some of these laws are still on the books although the U.S. Supreme Court declared them unconstitutional in June, 2003, as part of its Lawrence v. Texas decision.
Opinion among most liberal and mainline Christian and Jewish theologians has now reverted to the original Christian belief that Genesis 19 refers to a lack of charity and to ill treatment of strangers.
In ancient Jewish literature, such as the "Ethics of the Fathers" and the Talmud, there are many references to Sodom. The phrase "middat Sdom" was used. It may be translated as "the way the people of Sodom thought." It meant a lack of charity and hospitality towards others; ignoring the needs of the poor, etc. In the Middle East, a person's survival could depend upon the charity of strangers. To help strangers was a solemn religious duty of paramount importance. See Leviticus 19:33-34 and Matthew 25:35, 38 and 43.
Consider the following: Isaiah 1; The entire first chapter is an total condemnation of Judah. It is repeatedly compared with Sodom and Gomorrah in its evildoing and depravity. Throughout the chapter, the Prophet lists many sins of the people: rebelling against God, lacking in knowledge, deserting the Lord, idolatry, engaging in meaningless religious ritual, being unjust and oppressive to others, being insensitive to the needs of widows and orphans, committing murder, accepting bribes, etc. HOWEVER, there is NO reference to homosexuality or to any other sexual activities at all.
Jeremiah 23:14:"...among the prophets of Jerusalem, I have seen something horrible: They commit adultery and live a lie. They strengthen the hands of evildoers, so that no one turns from his wickedness. They are all like Sodom to me; the people of Jerusalem are like Gomorrah." Jeremiah compares the actions of the prophets with the adultery, lying and evil of the people of Sodom. AGAIN, Homosexual activity is NOT mentioned.
Ezekiel 16:49-50: "Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. They were haughty and did detestable things before me. Therefore I did away with them as you have seen."
In the above passage, God, Himself, clearly says that He destroyed Sodom's sins because of their pride, their excess of food while the poor and needy suffered; sexual activity is NOT even mentioned.
In Matthew 10:14-17; Jesus implied that the sin of the people of Sodom was in being inhospitable to strangers.
Luke 10:7-16: This is parallel passage to the verses from Matthew.
2 Peter 6-8: Peter mentions that God destroyed the adults and children of Sodom because the former were ungodly, unprincipled and lawless.
Jude, Verse 7: Jude disagreed with Jesus and Ezekeiel; he wrote that Sodom's sins were sexual in nature. Various biblical translations of this passage in Jude describe the sin as: fornication, going after strange flesh, sexual immorality, perverted sensuality, homosexuality, lust of every kind, immoral acts and unnatural lust. It looks as if the translators were unclear of the meaning of the verse in its original Greek, and simply selected their favorite sin to attack. The original Greek is transliterated as: "sarkos heteras." This can be translated as "other flesh". Ironically, our English word "heterosexual" comes from "heteras."
A likely interpretation is that the author of Jude criticized the men of Sodom for wanting to engage in sexual activities with angels. Angels are described in the Bible as a species of created beings who were different from humans. The sin of the people of Sodom, then, would be that of bestiality. Another possibility is that the "other flesh" refers to cannibalism, which was a practice associated with early Canaanite culture. However, there is no mention, in Genesis 19, about the men of Sodom getting close enough to actually 'touch' the Angels let alone, actually 'eatIng' the angels.
On the other hand there are some passages which might imply that the sin of Sodom WAS homosexuality:
Jeremiah 49:18: Some conservative theologians have interpreted this verse as criticizing the inhabitants of Jerusalem for their sexual sins, and implying that they were like the men of Sodom.
Ezekiel 16:50: Although the preceding verse describes Sodom's sins as pride, laziness, insensitivity to the needs of the poor, and haughtiness, verse 50 refers to the citizens of Sodom as having "committed abomination." The Hebrew word "to'ebah," translated here as "abomination," was used throughout the Hebrew Scriptures (Old Testament) to refer to various ritually impure acts, such as Hebrews and Egyptians eating together, Hebrews eating lobster, shrimp, or snakes, sacrificing an animal in the temple that contained a blemish, women wearing men's clothing (e.g. pants), a man remarrying his former wife, etc. It was also used in Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 to condemn same-sex activity between two males. It is debatable which "abomination(s)" occurred in Sodom. But it could, very easily have been same-gender sexual activity.