Pennylynn wrote:
Another educated post. Many thanks.
So, let us get to it.
Mary can we justify Jesus as the Messiah through her? Tribal lineage is traced only through a person’s father, never the mother. This principle is clearly stated in the Torah: "And on the first day of the second month, they assembled the whole congregation together, who registered themselves by families, by their fathers’ houses, according to the number of names from twenty years old and upward, head by head." Numbers 1:18
Mary’s genealogy is completely irrelevant to Jesus’ alleged lineage to King David. For good reason, nowhere in the New Testament is Mary’s genealogy recorded. As mentioned above, matrilineal ancestry is irrelevant to tribe identification. Both the first chapter of Matthew and in the third chapter of Luke contain a putative genealogy of Joseph alone. Although these two genealogies completely contradict each other, neither suggests that Mary was a descendant of king of David. Joseph’s genealogy is irrelevant to Jesus because according to two out of four Gospels claim that Joseph was not Jesus’ father. The author of the Book of Mark, the earliest of the four Gospels, knows nothing of a virgin birth, and accordingly, begins his book with the baptism of Jesus. The Book of John contains no infancy narrative. Coupled with that, nowhere in the third Gospel, or in the entire New Testament, for that matter, is there a claim that Mary was a descendant of the House of David. On the contrary, Luke plainly asserts that it is Joseph who was from the House of David, not Mary.
"To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin’s name was Mary." Luke 1:27
While we are into the book of Luke, he writes that Mary was the cousin of Elizabeth, who he says was a descendant of Aaron the high priest, placing her in the tribe of Levi, not David’s tribe of Judah. Moreover, in Luke 2:4, the author writes that the reason it was necessary for Joseph and Mary to return to Bethlehem was because it was Joseph, not Mary, who was from the House of David. "And Joseph also went up from Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judaea, unto the city of David, which is called Bethlehem; (because he was of the house and lineage of David.)"
“You are My witnesses,” declares the Lord, “and My servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe Me and understand that I am He. Before Me no god was formed, nor will there be one after Me. I, even I, am the Lord, and besides Me there is no Savior.”(Isaiah 43:10-11)
“I am the Lord, and there is no other; besides Me there is no God… I will strengthen you…I order that they know from the shining of the sun and from the west that there is no one besides Me; I am the Lord and there is no other!” (Isaiah 45:5-6)
More to come as I try to digest and vet your comment.
Please keep posting, I enjoy your work and it is a rich diet of food for thought!
Another educated post. Many thanks. br br So, le... (
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It is true Jesus does not get his right to rule through Mary, He gets that through Joseph only (Remember Jehoiachin is very important for us to understand this: he was cursed by God that no one of his sons would be King of Israel and for that curse to be by-passed we have Joseph a descendant of Jehoiachin not have any of any children from his loins rule in Israel but then Joseph was already betrothed to Mary and Christ was already in Mary’s womb at that time and in Jewish culture for someone to be betrothed is much as saying he was married to her and that’s why Christ was always called the Son of Joseph by the Jewish people and they all knew in their minds what was going on that Christ was the next King but remember Israel was being ruled by an Edomite who is not even a Jew called Herod and so when Herod had of the news from the religious elders of the time that a King would be born we all know what came next.So it is true Christ only and only gets his right to the throne through His earthly father Joseph. But the only reason we have Mary come into the picture is to by-pass that curse from Jehoachin. So Christ only gets the body from Mary,He gets no right to rule from her lineage.It is also true that the geneologies are mainly for men but we also find five women actually in the Matthew geneology also that is how God is gracious.
Matt. 1:3 Tamar. It is unusual for women to be named in genealogies. Matthew names five: “Tamar” was a Canaanite woman who posed as a prostitute to seduce Judah (Gen. 38:13–30). “Rahab” (Matt. 1:5) was a Gentile and a prostitute (Josh. 2:1). “Ruth” (Matt. 1:5) was a Moabite woman (Ruth 1:3) and a worshiper of idols. “Bathsheba” (“wife of Uriah,” Matt. 1:6) committed adultery with David (2 Sam. 11). And “Mary” (Matt. 1:16) bore the stigma of pregnancy outside of wedlock. Each of these women is an object lesson about the workings of divine grace.
We also have to view Mary in the Geneology of Luke:
Luke 3:23–38 Luke’s genealogy moves backward, from Jesus to Adam; Matthew’s moves forward, from Abraham to Joseph. Luke’s entire section from Joseph to David differs starkly from that given by Matthew. The two genealogies are easily reconciled if Luke’s is seen as Mary’s genealogy, and Matthew’s version represents Joseph’s. Thus the royal line is passed through Jesus’ legal father, and his physical descent from David is established by Mary’s lineage. Luke, unlike Matthew (see note on Matt. 1:3), includes no women in his genealogy—even Mary herself. Joseph was “the son of Heli” by marriage (Heli having no sons of his own), and thus is named here in Luke 3:23 as the representative of Mary’s generation. Moses himself established precedent for this sort of substitution in Num. 27:1–11; 36:1–12. The men listed from Heli (Luke 3:23) to Rhesa (v. 27) are found nowhere else in Scripture. Zerubbabel and Shealtiel (v. 27) are the only two names here that correspond to names in Matthew’s genealogy between David and Jesus. For an explanation see notes on Hag. 2:23 and Matt. 1:12.
FROM CHURCH TRADITION:
Since Joseph cannot be both "begotten of Jacob", descended from Solomon (according to Matthew 1), and also "of Heli", descended from another of David's sons, Nathan(according to Luke 3) various explanations have been proposed for the Luke genealogy actually to be that of Mary. The view is relatively late; advocates of this view include John of Damascus (8th century), Annius (15th century), Luther, Bengel and Lightfoot.[1] Harry A. Ironside (1930) considered that it was simply preference to drop women's names out of the genealogy, hence Joseph was son in law of Heli.[2][3]
Prior to the explanation above, the explanation of Sextus Julius Africanus that there had been a levirate marriage and that Joseph's grandfather Mattan (descendant of Solomon) had had a wife called "Esther" (not recorded in the Bible) with whom he fathered Jacob (Joseph's father), but Matthan died and Esther married Heli's father Melchi (descendant of Nathan). Then when Heli died childless (again not recorded in the Bible) Joseph's father Jacob took Heli's wife to raise up children for Heli and left Joseph adopted in Heli's widow's house.[4]
Another possibility is that since both Heli and Jacob have a similar name listed as their father (Matthan in Matthew, Matthat in Luke), a discrepancy that can easily be accounted for by error, that the names Heli and Jacob refer to the same person. Matthew relied heavily on fitting existing prophecy to the narrative; in the Old Testament, Jacob (the last of the biblical patriarchs) also had a son named Joseph.[5] This explanation fits for Heli/Jacob himself, but not for the earlier genealogies.
Joseph is clearly pointed out as descendant of David in both genealogies. On the other hand, New Testament sources are silent about Mary's descendance from David. However, through her marriage with Joseph she enters his family and legally becomes, she and her son Jesus, a part of the House of David.
(REFERENCE :
https://udayton.edu/imri/mary/d/david-mary-as-descendant-of.php)
(QUOTE)
The author of the Book of Mark, the earliest of the four Gospels, knows nothing of a virgin birth, and accordingly, begins his book with the baptism of Jesus. The Book of John contains no infancy narrative. Coupled with that, nowhere in the third Gospel, or in the entire New Testament, for that matter, is there a claim that Mary was a descendant of the House of David. On the contrary, Luke plainly asserts that it is Joseph who was from the House of David, not Mary.
"To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin’s name was Mary." Luke 1:27
While we are into the book of Luke, he writes that Mary was the cousin of Elizabeth, who he says was a descendant of Aaron the high priest, placing her in the tribe of Levi, not David’s tribe of Judah. Moreover, in Luke 2:4, the author writes that the reason it was necessary for Joseph and Mary to return to Bethlehem was because it was Joseph, not Mary, who was from the House of David. "And Joseph also went up from Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judaea, unto the city of David, which is called Bethlehem; (because he was of the house and lineage of David.)"
Some Important information about the Book of Mark
Title
Mark, for whom this Gospel is named, was a close companion of the apostle Peter and a recurring character in the book of Acts, where he is known as “John whose other name was Mark” (Acts 12:12, 25; 15:37, 39). It was to John Mark’s mother’s home in Jerusalem that Peter went when released from prison (Acts 12:12).
John Mark was a cousin of Barnabas (Col. 4:10), who accompanied Paul and Barnabas on Paul’s first missionary journey (Acts 12:25; 13:5). But he deserted them along the way in Perga and returned to Jerusalem (Acts 13:13). When Barnabas wanted Paul to take John Mark on the second missionary journey, Paul refused. The friction that resulted between Paul and Barnabas led to their separation (Acts 15:38–40).
But John Mark’s earlier vacillation evidently gave way to great strength and maturity, and in time he proved himself even to the apostle Paul. When Paul wrote the Colossians, he instructed them that if John Mark came, they were to welcome him (Col. 4:10). Paul even listed Mark as a fellow worker (Philem. 24). Later, Paul told Timothy to “get Mark and bring him with you, for he is very useful to me for ministry” (2 Tim. 4:11).
John Mark’s restoration to useful ministry may have been, in part, due to the ministry of Peter. Peter’s close relationship with Mark is evident from his description of him as “Mark, my son” (1 Pet. 5:13). Peter, of course, was no stranger to failure himself, and his influence on the younger man was no doubt instrumental in helping him out of the instability of his youth and into the strength and maturity he would need for the work to which God had called him.
Author and Date
Unlike the epistles, the Gospels do not name their authors. The early church Fathers, however, unanimously affirm that Mark wrote this second Gospel. Papias, bishop of Hieropolis, writing about a.d. 140, noted:
And the presbyter [the apostle John] said this: Mark having become the interpreter of Peter, wrote down accurately whatsoever he remembered. It was not, however, in exact order that he related the sayings or deeds of Christ. For he neither heard the Lord nor accompanied him. But afterwards, as I said, he accompanied Peter, who accommodated his instructions to the necessities [of his hearers], but with no intention of giving a regular narrative of the Lord’s sayings. Wherefore Mark made no mistake in thus writing some things as he remembered them. For of one thing he took especial care, not to omit anything he had heard, and not to put anything fictitious into the statements. [From the Exposition of the Oracles of the Lord (6)]
Justin Martyr, writing about a.d. 150, referred to the Gospel of Mark as “the memoirs of Peter,” and suggested that Mark committed his Gospel to writing while in Italy. This agrees with the uniform voice of early tradition, which regarded this Gospel as having been written in Rome, for the benefit of Roman Christians. Irenaeus, writing about a.d. 185, called Mark “the disciple and interpreter of Peter,” and recorded that the second Gospel consisted of what Peter preached about Christ. The testimony of the church Fathers differs as to whether this Gospel was written before or after Peter’s death (c. a.d. 67–68).
Evangelical scholars have suggested dates for the writing of Mark’s Gospel ranging from a.d. 50 to 70. A date before the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple in a.d. 70 is required by the comment of Jesus in Mark 13:2. Luke’s Gospel was clearly written before Acts (Acts 1:1–3). The date of the writing of Acts can probably be fixed at about a.d. 63, because that is shortly after the narrative ends (see Introduction to Acts: Author and Date). It is therefore likely, though not certain, that Mark was written at an early date, probably sometime in the 50s.
Background and Setting
Whereas Matthew was written to a Jewish audience, Mark seems to have targeted Roman believers, particularly Gentiles. When employing Aramaic terms, Mark translated them for his readers (3:17; 5:41; 7:11, 34; 10:46; 14:36; 15:22, 34). On the other hand, in some places he used Latin expressions instead of their Greek equivalents (5:9; 6:27; 12:15, 42; 15:16, 39). He also reckoned time according to the Roman system (6:48; 13:35) and carefully explained Jewish customs (7:3–4; 14:12; 15:42). Mark omitted Jewish elements, such as the genealogies found in Matthew and Luke. This Gospel also makes fewer references to the OT, and includes less material that would be of particular interest to Jewish readers—such as that which is critical of the Pharisees and Sadducees (Sadducees are mentioned only once, in 12:18). When mentioning Simon of Cyrene (15:21), Mark identifies him as the father of Rufus, a prominent member of the church at Rome (Rom. 16:13). All of this supports the traditional view that Mark was written for a Gentile audience initially at Rome.
(To be Continued......)