Understanding: The Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 1 of 21)
Dec 7, 2017 17:28:22 #
12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 1 of 21)
Joel Peters
http://www.catholicapologetics.info/apologetics/protestantism/sola.htm
What is Sola Scriptura?
“We believe in the Bible alone and the Bible in its entirety as the sole rule of faith for the Christian!”
You may have heard these words or something very similar to them from a Fundamentalist or Evangelical Protestant.
They are, in essence, the meaning of the doctrine of Sola Scriptura, or "Scripture alone.”
Which alleges that the Bible – as interpreted by the individual believer – is the only source of religious authority and is the Christian’s sole rule of faith or criterion regarding what is to be believed.
By this doctrine, which is one of the foundational beliefs of Protestantism, a Protestant denies that there is any other source of religious authority or divine Revelation to humanity.
The Catholic, on the other hand, holds that the immediate or direct rule of faith is the teaching of the Church;
The Church in turn takes her teaching from the divine Revelation – both the written Word, called Sacred Scripture, and the oral or unwritten Word, known as "Tradition."
The teaching authority or "Magisterium" of the Catholic Church (headed by the Pope), although not itself a source of divine Revelation, nevertheless has a God-given mission to interpret and teach both Scripture and Tradition.
Scripture and Tradition are the sources of Christian doctrine, the Christian’s remote or indirect rule of faith.
Obviously these two views on what constitutes the Christian’s rule of faith are opposed to each other, and anyone who sincerely seeks to follow Christ must be sure that he follows the one that is true.
The doctrine of Sola Scriptura originated with Martin Luther, the 16th-century German monk who broke away from the Roman Catholic Church and started the Protestant "Reformation." (1)
In response to some abuses that had been occurring within the Catholic Church, Luther became a vocal opponent of certain practices. As far as these abuses were concerned, they were real and Luther was justified in reacting.
However, as a series of confrontations between him and the Church hierarchy developed, the issues became more centered on the question of Church authority and – from Luther’s perspective – whether or not the teaching of the Catholic Church was a legitimate rule of faith for Christians.
As the confrontations between Luther and the Church’s hierarchy ensued and tensions mounted, Luther accused the Catholic Church of having corrupted Christian doctrine and having distorted Biblical truths, and he more and more. Luther came to believe that the Bible, as interpreted by the individual believer, was the only true religious authority for a Christian.
Luther eventually rejected Tradition as well as the teaching authority of the Catholic Church (with the Pope at its head) as having legitimate religious authority.
An honest inquirer must ask, then:
a. Whether Luther’s doctrine of "Scripture alone" was a genuine restoration of a Biblical truth.
b. Or rather the promulgation of an individual’s personal views on Christian authority.
Luther was clearly passionate about his beliefs, and he was successful in spreading them, but these facts in and of themselves do not guarantee that what he taught was correct.
Since one’s spiritual well-being, and even one’s eternal destiny, is at stake, the Christian believer needs to be absolutely sure in this matter.
The following are twenty-one considerations which will help the reader scrutinize Luther’s doctrine of Sola Scriptura from Biblical, historical and logical bases and which show that it is not in fact a genuine Biblical truth, but rather a man-made doctrine.
1. The Doctrine of Sola Scriptura is not taught anywhere in the Bible.
Perhaps the most striking reason for rejecting this doctrine is that there is not one verse anywhere in the Bible in which it is taught, and it therefore becomes a self-refuting doctrine.
Protestants often point to verses such as:
a. 2 Timothy 3:16-17 or
b. The Apocalypse (Revelation) 22:18-19
In defense of Sola Scriptura, but close examination of these two passages easily demonstrates that they do not support the doctrine at all.
In 2 Timothy 3:16-17 we read;
"All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice, that the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.”
There are five (5) considerations which undermine the Sola Scriptura interpretation of this passage:
1) The Greek word ophelimos ("profitable") used in verse 16 means "useful" not "sufficient."
An example of this difference would be to say that water is useful for our existence – even necessary – but it is not sufficient;
That is, it is not the only thing we need to survive.
We also need food, clothing, shelter, etc.
Likewise, Scripture is useful in the life of the believer, but it was never meant to be the only source of Christian teaching, the only thing needed for believers.
2) The Greek word pasa, which is often rendered as "all," actually means "every," and it has the sense of referring to each and every one of the class denoted by the noun connected with it. (2)
In other words, the Greek reads in a way which indicates that each and every "Scripture" is profitable.
If the doctrine of Sola Scriptura were true, then based on Greek verse 16, each and every book of the Bible could stand on its own as the sole rule of faith, a position which is obviously absurd.
3) The "Scripture" that St. Paul is referring to here is the Old Testament, a fact which is made plain by his reference to the Scripture’s being known by Timothy from "infancy" (verse 15).
The New Testament as we know it did not yet exist, or at best it was incomplete, so it simply could not have included in St. Paul’s understanding of what was meant by the term "scripture."
If we take St. Paul’s words at face value, Sola Scriptura would therefore mean that the Old Testament is the Christian’s sole rule of faith. This is a premise that all Christians would reject.
Protestants may respond to this issue by arguing that St. Paul is not here discussing the canon of the Bible (the authoritative list of which books are included in the Bible), but rather the nature of Scripture.
While there is some validity to this assertion, the issue of canon is also relevant here, for the following reason:
Before we can talk about the nature of Scripture as being theopneustos or "inspired" (literally, “God-breathed").
It is imperative that we identify with certainty those books we mean when we say "Scripture"; otherwise, the wrong writings may be labeled as "inspired."
St. Paul’s words here obviously took on a new dimension when the New Testament was completed, as Christians eventually considered it, too, to be "Scripture."
It can be argued, then, that the Biblical canon is also the issue here, as St. Paul – writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit – emphasizes the fact that all (and not just some) Scripture is inspired.
The question that begs to be asked, however, is this:
"How can we be sure we have all the correct writings?"
Obviously, we can only know the answer if we know what the canon of the Bible is.
Such a question poses a problem for the Protestant, but not for the Catholic, as the latter has an infallible authority to answer it.
Joel Peters
http://www.catholicapologetics.info/apologetics/protestantism/sola.htm
What is Sola Scriptura?
“We believe in the Bible alone and the Bible in its entirety as the sole rule of faith for the Christian!”
You may have heard these words or something very similar to them from a Fundamentalist or Evangelical Protestant.
They are, in essence, the meaning of the doctrine of Sola Scriptura, or "Scripture alone.”
Which alleges that the Bible – as interpreted by the individual believer – is the only source of religious authority and is the Christian’s sole rule of faith or criterion regarding what is to be believed.
By this doctrine, which is one of the foundational beliefs of Protestantism, a Protestant denies that there is any other source of religious authority or divine Revelation to humanity.
The Catholic, on the other hand, holds that the immediate or direct rule of faith is the teaching of the Church;
The Church in turn takes her teaching from the divine Revelation – both the written Word, called Sacred Scripture, and the oral or unwritten Word, known as "Tradition."
The teaching authority or "Magisterium" of the Catholic Church (headed by the Pope), although not itself a source of divine Revelation, nevertheless has a God-given mission to interpret and teach both Scripture and Tradition.
Scripture and Tradition are the sources of Christian doctrine, the Christian’s remote or indirect rule of faith.
Obviously these two views on what constitutes the Christian’s rule of faith are opposed to each other, and anyone who sincerely seeks to follow Christ must be sure that he follows the one that is true.
The doctrine of Sola Scriptura originated with Martin Luther, the 16th-century German monk who broke away from the Roman Catholic Church and started the Protestant "Reformation." (1)
In response to some abuses that had been occurring within the Catholic Church, Luther became a vocal opponent of certain practices. As far as these abuses were concerned, they were real and Luther was justified in reacting.
However, as a series of confrontations between him and the Church hierarchy developed, the issues became more centered on the question of Church authority and – from Luther’s perspective – whether or not the teaching of the Catholic Church was a legitimate rule of faith for Christians.
As the confrontations between Luther and the Church’s hierarchy ensued and tensions mounted, Luther accused the Catholic Church of having corrupted Christian doctrine and having distorted Biblical truths, and he more and more. Luther came to believe that the Bible, as interpreted by the individual believer, was the only true religious authority for a Christian.
Luther eventually rejected Tradition as well as the teaching authority of the Catholic Church (with the Pope at its head) as having legitimate religious authority.
An honest inquirer must ask, then:
a. Whether Luther’s doctrine of "Scripture alone" was a genuine restoration of a Biblical truth.
b. Or rather the promulgation of an individual’s personal views on Christian authority.
Luther was clearly passionate about his beliefs, and he was successful in spreading them, but these facts in and of themselves do not guarantee that what he taught was correct.
Since one’s spiritual well-being, and even one’s eternal destiny, is at stake, the Christian believer needs to be absolutely sure in this matter.
The following are twenty-one considerations which will help the reader scrutinize Luther’s doctrine of Sola Scriptura from Biblical, historical and logical bases and which show that it is not in fact a genuine Biblical truth, but rather a man-made doctrine.
1. The Doctrine of Sola Scriptura is not taught anywhere in the Bible.
Perhaps the most striking reason for rejecting this doctrine is that there is not one verse anywhere in the Bible in which it is taught, and it therefore becomes a self-refuting doctrine.
Protestants often point to verses such as:
a. 2 Timothy 3:16-17 or
b. The Apocalypse (Revelation) 22:18-19
In defense of Sola Scriptura, but close examination of these two passages easily demonstrates that they do not support the doctrine at all.
In 2 Timothy 3:16-17 we read;
"All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice, that the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.”
There are five (5) considerations which undermine the Sola Scriptura interpretation of this passage:
1) The Greek word ophelimos ("profitable") used in verse 16 means "useful" not "sufficient."
An example of this difference would be to say that water is useful for our existence – even necessary – but it is not sufficient;
That is, it is not the only thing we need to survive.
We also need food, clothing, shelter, etc.
Likewise, Scripture is useful in the life of the believer, but it was never meant to be the only source of Christian teaching, the only thing needed for believers.
2) The Greek word pasa, which is often rendered as "all," actually means "every," and it has the sense of referring to each and every one of the class denoted by the noun connected with it. (2)
In other words, the Greek reads in a way which indicates that each and every "Scripture" is profitable.
If the doctrine of Sola Scriptura were true, then based on Greek verse 16, each and every book of the Bible could stand on its own as the sole rule of faith, a position which is obviously absurd.
3) The "Scripture" that St. Paul is referring to here is the Old Testament, a fact which is made plain by his reference to the Scripture’s being known by Timothy from "infancy" (verse 15).
The New Testament as we know it did not yet exist, or at best it was incomplete, so it simply could not have included in St. Paul’s understanding of what was meant by the term "scripture."
If we take St. Paul’s words at face value, Sola Scriptura would therefore mean that the Old Testament is the Christian’s sole rule of faith. This is a premise that all Christians would reject.
Protestants may respond to this issue by arguing that St. Paul is not here discussing the canon of the Bible (the authoritative list of which books are included in the Bible), but rather the nature of Scripture.
While there is some validity to this assertion, the issue of canon is also relevant here, for the following reason:
Before we can talk about the nature of Scripture as being theopneustos or "inspired" (literally, “God-breathed").
It is imperative that we identify with certainty those books we mean when we say "Scripture"; otherwise, the wrong writings may be labeled as "inspired."
St. Paul’s words here obviously took on a new dimension when the New Testament was completed, as Christians eventually considered it, too, to be "Scripture."
It can be argued, then, that the Biblical canon is also the issue here, as St. Paul – writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit – emphasizes the fact that all (and not just some) Scripture is inspired.
The question that begs to be asked, however, is this:
"How can we be sure we have all the correct writings?"
Obviously, we can only know the answer if we know what the canon of the Bible is.
Such a question poses a problem for the Protestant, but not for the Catholic, as the latter has an infallible authority to answer it.
Dec 7, 2017 17:28:56 #
4) The Greek word artios, here translated "perfect," may at first glance make it seem that the Scriptures are indeed all that is needed.
"After all," one may ask, "if the Scriptures make the man of God perfect, what else could be needed?
Doesn’t the very word ‘perfect’ imply that nothing is lacking?”
Well, the difficulty with such an interpretation is that the text here does not say that it is solely by means of the Scriptures that the man of God is made "perfect."
The text – if anything – indicates precisely the opposite to be true, namely, that the Scriptures operate in conjunction with other things.
Notice that it is not just anyone who is made perfect, but rather the "man of God" – which means a minister of Christ (cf. 1 Tim. 6:11), a clergyman.
The fact that this individual is a minister of Christ presupposes that he has already had training and teaching which prepared him to assume his office.
This being the case, the Scriptures would be merely one item in a series of items which make this man of God "perfect."
The Scriptures may complete his list of necessary items or they may be one prominent item on the list, but surely they are not the only item on his list nor intended to be all that he needs.
By way of analogy, consider a medical doctor.
In this context we might say something like, "The Physician’s Desk Reference [a standard medical reference book] makes our General Practitioner perfect, so that he may be ready to treat any medical situation."
Obviously such a statement does not mean that all a doctor needs is his PDR.
It is neither the last item on his list or just one prominent item.
The doctor also needs his stethoscope, his blood pressure gauge, his training, etc.
These other items are presupposed by the fact that we are talking about a doctor rather than a non-medical person.
So it would be incorrect to assume that if the PDR makes the doctor "perfect," it is the only thing which makes him so.
Also, taking this word "perfect" as meaning "the only necessary item" results in a biblical contradiction.
For in James 1:4 we read that patience – rather than the Scriptures – makes on perfect:
"And patience hath a perfect work; that you may be perfect and entire, failing in nothing."
Now it is true that a different Greek word (teleios) is used here for "perfect," but the fact remains that the basic meaning is the same.
Now, if one rightly acknowledges that patience is clearly not the only thing a Christian needs in order to be perfect, then a consistent interpretive method would compel one to acknowledge likewise that the Scriptures are not the only think a "man of God" needs in order to be perfect.
5) The Greek word exartizo in verse 17, here translated "furnished" (other Bible versions read something like "fully equipped" or "thoroughly furnished”).
This referred to by Protestants as "proof" of Sola Scriptura, since this word – again – may be taken as implying that nothing else is needed for the "man of God."
However, even though the man of God may be "furnished" or "thoroughly equipped," this fact in and of itself does not guarantee that he knows how to interpret correctly and apply any given Scripture passage.
The clergyman must also be taught how to correctly use the Scriptures, even though he may already be "furnished" with them.
Consider again a medical analogy.
Picture a medical student at the beginning of internship. He might have at his disposal all the equipment necessary to perform an operation (i.e., he is "thoroughly equipped" or "furnished" for a surgical procedure)
But until he spends time with the doctors, who are the resident authorities, observing their techniques, learning their skills, and practicing some procedures of his own, the surgical instruments at his disposal are essentially useless.
In fact, if he does not learn how to use these instruments properly, they can actually become dangerous in his hands.
So it is with the "man of God" and the Scriptures.
The Scriptures, like the surgical instruments, are life-giving only when properly used.
When improperly used, the exact opposite results can occur.
In once case they could bring physical ruin or even death; in the other case they could bring spiritual ruin or even spiritual death.
Since the Bible admonishes us to handle rightly or rightly divide the word of truth (cf. 2 Tim. 2:15), it is therefore possible to handle incorrectly or wrongly divide it – much like an untrained medical student who incorrectly wields his surgical instruments.
Regarding The Apocalypse (Revelation) 22:18-19, there are two considerations which undermine the Sola Scriptura interpretation of these verses.
The passage – almost the very last in the Bible – reads:
Revelation 22:18-19 "For I testify to every one that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book: If any man shall add to these things, God shall add unto him the plagues written in this book.
And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from these things that are written in this book.”
1) When these verses say that nothing is to be added to or taken from the "words of the prophecy of this book.”
They are not referring to Sacred Tradition being "added" to the Sacred Scripture.
It is obvious from the context that the "book" being referred to here is Revelation or The Apocalypse and not the whole Bible.
We know this because St. John says that anyone who is guilty of adding to "this book" will be cursed with the plagues" written in this book," namely the plagues he described earlier in his own book, Revelation.
To assert otherwise is to do violence to the text and to distort its plain meaning, especially since the Bible as we know it did not exist, when this passage was written and therefore could not be what was meant. (3)
In defense of their interpretation of these verses, Protestants will often contend that God knew in advance what the canon of Scripture would be, with Revelation being the last book of the Bible, and thus He "sealed" that canon with the words of verses 18-19.
But this interpretation involves reading a meaning into the text.
Furthermore, if such an assertion were true, how is it that the Christian knows unmistakably that Revelation 22:18-19 is "sealing" the canon unless an infallible teaching authority assures him that this is the correct interpretation of that verse?
But if such an infallible authority exists, then the Sola Scriptura doctrine becomes ipso facto null and void.
2) The same admonition not to add or subtract words is used in Deuteronomy 4:2, which says, "You shall not add to the word that I speak to you, neither shall you take away from it:
Keep the commandment of the Lord your God which I command you."
[b]If we were to apply a parallel interpretation to this verse, then anything in the Bible beyond the decrees of the Old Testament law would be considered non-canonical or not authentic Scripture – including the New Testament!
Once again, all Christians would reject this conclusion in no uncertain terms.
The prohibition in Revelation 22:18-19 against "adding," therefore, cannot mean that Christians are forbidden to look to anything outside the Bible for guidance.[b]
(End Part 1)
"After all," one may ask, "if the Scriptures make the man of God perfect, what else could be needed?
Doesn’t the very word ‘perfect’ imply that nothing is lacking?”
Well, the difficulty with such an interpretation is that the text here does not say that it is solely by means of the Scriptures that the man of God is made "perfect."
The text – if anything – indicates precisely the opposite to be true, namely, that the Scriptures operate in conjunction with other things.
Notice that it is not just anyone who is made perfect, but rather the "man of God" – which means a minister of Christ (cf. 1 Tim. 6:11), a clergyman.
The fact that this individual is a minister of Christ presupposes that he has already had training and teaching which prepared him to assume his office.
This being the case, the Scriptures would be merely one item in a series of items which make this man of God "perfect."
The Scriptures may complete his list of necessary items or they may be one prominent item on the list, but surely they are not the only item on his list nor intended to be all that he needs.
By way of analogy, consider a medical doctor.
In this context we might say something like, "The Physician’s Desk Reference [a standard medical reference book] makes our General Practitioner perfect, so that he may be ready to treat any medical situation."
Obviously such a statement does not mean that all a doctor needs is his PDR.
It is neither the last item on his list or just one prominent item.
The doctor also needs his stethoscope, his blood pressure gauge, his training, etc.
These other items are presupposed by the fact that we are talking about a doctor rather than a non-medical person.
So it would be incorrect to assume that if the PDR makes the doctor "perfect," it is the only thing which makes him so.
Also, taking this word "perfect" as meaning "the only necessary item" results in a biblical contradiction.
For in James 1:4 we read that patience – rather than the Scriptures – makes on perfect:
"And patience hath a perfect work; that you may be perfect and entire, failing in nothing."
Now it is true that a different Greek word (teleios) is used here for "perfect," but the fact remains that the basic meaning is the same.
Now, if one rightly acknowledges that patience is clearly not the only thing a Christian needs in order to be perfect, then a consistent interpretive method would compel one to acknowledge likewise that the Scriptures are not the only think a "man of God" needs in order to be perfect.
5) The Greek word exartizo in verse 17, here translated "furnished" (other Bible versions read something like "fully equipped" or "thoroughly furnished”).
This referred to by Protestants as "proof" of Sola Scriptura, since this word – again – may be taken as implying that nothing else is needed for the "man of God."
However, even though the man of God may be "furnished" or "thoroughly equipped," this fact in and of itself does not guarantee that he knows how to interpret correctly and apply any given Scripture passage.
The clergyman must also be taught how to correctly use the Scriptures, even though he may already be "furnished" with them.
Consider again a medical analogy.
Picture a medical student at the beginning of internship. He might have at his disposal all the equipment necessary to perform an operation (i.e., he is "thoroughly equipped" or "furnished" for a surgical procedure)
But until he spends time with the doctors, who are the resident authorities, observing their techniques, learning their skills, and practicing some procedures of his own, the surgical instruments at his disposal are essentially useless.
In fact, if he does not learn how to use these instruments properly, they can actually become dangerous in his hands.
So it is with the "man of God" and the Scriptures.
The Scriptures, like the surgical instruments, are life-giving only when properly used.
When improperly used, the exact opposite results can occur.
In once case they could bring physical ruin or even death; in the other case they could bring spiritual ruin or even spiritual death.
Since the Bible admonishes us to handle rightly or rightly divide the word of truth (cf. 2 Tim. 2:15), it is therefore possible to handle incorrectly or wrongly divide it – much like an untrained medical student who incorrectly wields his surgical instruments.
Regarding The Apocalypse (Revelation) 22:18-19, there are two considerations which undermine the Sola Scriptura interpretation of these verses.
The passage – almost the very last in the Bible – reads:
Revelation 22:18-19 "For I testify to every one that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book: If any man shall add to these things, God shall add unto him the plagues written in this book.
And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from these things that are written in this book.”
1) When these verses say that nothing is to be added to or taken from the "words of the prophecy of this book.”
They are not referring to Sacred Tradition being "added" to the Sacred Scripture.
It is obvious from the context that the "book" being referred to here is Revelation or The Apocalypse and not the whole Bible.
We know this because St. John says that anyone who is guilty of adding to "this book" will be cursed with the plagues" written in this book," namely the plagues he described earlier in his own book, Revelation.
To assert otherwise is to do violence to the text and to distort its plain meaning, especially since the Bible as we know it did not exist, when this passage was written and therefore could not be what was meant. (3)
In defense of their interpretation of these verses, Protestants will often contend that God knew in advance what the canon of Scripture would be, with Revelation being the last book of the Bible, and thus He "sealed" that canon with the words of verses 18-19.
But this interpretation involves reading a meaning into the text.
Furthermore, if such an assertion were true, how is it that the Christian knows unmistakably that Revelation 22:18-19 is "sealing" the canon unless an infallible teaching authority assures him that this is the correct interpretation of that verse?
But if such an infallible authority exists, then the Sola Scriptura doctrine becomes ipso facto null and void.
2) The same admonition not to add or subtract words is used in Deuteronomy 4:2, which says, "You shall not add to the word that I speak to you, neither shall you take away from it:
Keep the commandment of the Lord your God which I command you."
[b]If we were to apply a parallel interpretation to this verse, then anything in the Bible beyond the decrees of the Old Testament law would be considered non-canonical or not authentic Scripture – including the New Testament!
Once again, all Christians would reject this conclusion in no uncertain terms.
The prohibition in Revelation 22:18-19 against "adding," therefore, cannot mean that Christians are forbidden to look to anything outside the Bible for guidance.[b]
(End Part 1)
Dec 7, 2017 18:03:47 #
Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 2 of 21)
2. The Bible Indicates that In Addition to the Written Word, we are to accept Oral Tradition
St. Paul both commends and commands the keeping of oral tradition.
In 1 Corinthians 11:2, for instance, we read,
2 "Now I praise you, brethren, that in all things you are mindful of me: and keep my ordinances as I have delivered them to you.” (4)
[/b] St. Paul is obviously commending the keeping of oral tradition here, and it should be noted in particular that he extols the believers for having done so ("I praise you...."). [/b]
Explicit in this passage is also the fact that the integrity of this Apostolic oral tradition has clearly been maintained, just as Our Lord promised it would be, through the safeguarding of the Holy Spirit (cf. John 16:3).
Perhaps the clearest Biblical support for oral tradition can be found in.
2 Thessalonians 2:14(15), where Christians are actually commanded:
14 "Therefore, brethren, stand fast; and hold the traditions which you have learned, whether by word, or by our epistle.”
[/b] This passage is significant in that
a) It shows the existence of living traditions within the Apostolic teaching,
b) It tells us unequivocally that believers are firmly grounded in the Faith by adhering to these traditions, and
c) It clearly states that these traditions were both written and oral.[/b]
Since the Bible distinctly states here that oral traditions – authentic and Apostolic in origin – are to be "held" as a valid component of the Deposit of Faith.
By what reasoning or excuse do Protestants dismiss them?
By what authority do they reject a clear-cut injunction of St. Paul ?
Moreover, we must consider the text in this passage.
The Greek word krateite, here translated "hold," means "to be strong, mighty, to prevail." (5)
This language is rather emphatic, and it demonstrates the importance of maintaining these traditions.
Of course one must differentiate between Tradition (upper-case "T") that is part of divine Revelation, on the one hand, and, on the other hand, Church traditions (lower-case "t") that, although good, have developed in the Church later and are not part of the Deposit of Faith.
An example of something that is part of Tradition would be
a. Infant Baptism;
An example of a Church tradition would be the
a. Church’s calendar of feast days of Saints.
Anything that is part of Tradition is of divine origin and hence unchangeable, while Church traditions are changeable by the Church.
Sacred Tradition serves as a rule of faith by showing what the Church has believed consistently through the centuries and how it is always understood any given portion of the Bible.
One of the main ways in which Tradition has been passed down to us is in the doctrine contained in the ancient texts of the liturgy, the Church’s public worship.[/b]
It should be noted that Protestants accuse Catholics of promoting "unbiblical" or "novel" doctrines based on Tradition, asserting that such Tradition contains doctrines which are foreign to the Bible.
However, this assertion is wholly untrue.
The Catholic Church teaches that Sacred Tradition contains nothing whatsoever that is contrary to the Bible.
Some Catholic thinkers would even say that there is nothing in Sacred Tradition which is not also found in Scripture, at least implicitly or in seminal form.
Certainly the two are at least in perfect harmony and always support each other.
For some doctrines, the Church draws more from Tradition than from Scripture for its understanding, but even those doctrines are often implied or hinted at in the Sacred Scripture
For example, the following are largely based on Sacred Tradition:
a. Infant Baptism,
b. The canon of Scripture,
c. The perpetual virginity of the Blessed Virgin Mary,
d. Sunday (rather than Saturday) as the Lord’s Day, and
e. The Assumption of Our Lady.
Sacred Tradition complements our understanding of the Bible and is therefore not some extraneous source of Revelation which contains doctrines that are foreign to it.
Quite the contrary:
Sacred Tradition serves as the Church’s living memory, reminding her of what the faithful have constantly and consistently believed and who to properly understand and interpret the meaning of Biblical passages. (6)
In a certain way, it is Sacred Tradition which says to the reader of the Bible.
"You have been reading a very important book which contains God’s revelation to man.
Now let me explain to you how it has always been understood and practiced by believers from the very beginning.”
(End Part 2)
2. The Bible Indicates that In Addition to the Written Word, we are to accept Oral Tradition
St. Paul both commends and commands the keeping of oral tradition.
In 1 Corinthians 11:2, for instance, we read,
2 "Now I praise you, brethren, that in all things you are mindful of me: and keep my ordinances as I have delivered them to you.” (4)
[/b] St. Paul is obviously commending the keeping of oral tradition here, and it should be noted in particular that he extols the believers for having done so ("I praise you...."). [/b]
Explicit in this passage is also the fact that the integrity of this Apostolic oral tradition has clearly been maintained, just as Our Lord promised it would be, through the safeguarding of the Holy Spirit (cf. John 16:3).
Perhaps the clearest Biblical support for oral tradition can be found in.
2 Thessalonians 2:14(15), where Christians are actually commanded:
14 "Therefore, brethren, stand fast; and hold the traditions which you have learned, whether by word, or by our epistle.”
[/b] This passage is significant in that
a) It shows the existence of living traditions within the Apostolic teaching,
b) It tells us unequivocally that believers are firmly grounded in the Faith by adhering to these traditions, and
c) It clearly states that these traditions were both written and oral.[/b]
Since the Bible distinctly states here that oral traditions – authentic and Apostolic in origin – are to be "held" as a valid component of the Deposit of Faith.
By what reasoning or excuse do Protestants dismiss them?
By what authority do they reject a clear-cut injunction of St. Paul ?
Moreover, we must consider the text in this passage.
The Greek word krateite, here translated "hold," means "to be strong, mighty, to prevail." (5)
This language is rather emphatic, and it demonstrates the importance of maintaining these traditions.
Of course one must differentiate between Tradition (upper-case "T") that is part of divine Revelation, on the one hand, and, on the other hand, Church traditions (lower-case "t") that, although good, have developed in the Church later and are not part of the Deposit of Faith.
An example of something that is part of Tradition would be
a. Infant Baptism;
An example of a Church tradition would be the
a. Church’s calendar of feast days of Saints.
Anything that is part of Tradition is of divine origin and hence unchangeable, while Church traditions are changeable by the Church.
Sacred Tradition serves as a rule of faith by showing what the Church has believed consistently through the centuries and how it is always understood any given portion of the Bible.
One of the main ways in which Tradition has been passed down to us is in the doctrine contained in the ancient texts of the liturgy, the Church’s public worship.[/b]
It should be noted that Protestants accuse Catholics of promoting "unbiblical" or "novel" doctrines based on Tradition, asserting that such Tradition contains doctrines which are foreign to the Bible.
However, this assertion is wholly untrue.
The Catholic Church teaches that Sacred Tradition contains nothing whatsoever that is contrary to the Bible.
Some Catholic thinkers would even say that there is nothing in Sacred Tradition which is not also found in Scripture, at least implicitly or in seminal form.
Certainly the two are at least in perfect harmony and always support each other.
For some doctrines, the Church draws more from Tradition than from Scripture for its understanding, but even those doctrines are often implied or hinted at in the Sacred Scripture
For example, the following are largely based on Sacred Tradition:
a. Infant Baptism,
b. The canon of Scripture,
c. The perpetual virginity of the Blessed Virgin Mary,
d. Sunday (rather than Saturday) as the Lord’s Day, and
e. The Assumption of Our Lady.
Sacred Tradition complements our understanding of the Bible and is therefore not some extraneous source of Revelation which contains doctrines that are foreign to it.
Quite the contrary:
Sacred Tradition serves as the Church’s living memory, reminding her of what the faithful have constantly and consistently believed and who to properly understand and interpret the meaning of Biblical passages. (6)
In a certain way, it is Sacred Tradition which says to the reader of the Bible.
"You have been reading a very important book which contains God’s revelation to man.
Now let me explain to you how it has always been understood and practiced by believers from the very beginning.”
(End Part 2)
Dec 7, 2017 18:37:08 #
12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 3 of 21)
3. The Bible Calls the Church and not the Bible the "Pillar and Ground of the Truth.”
It is very interesting to note that in:
I Timothy 3:15 we see, not the Bible, but the Church – that is, the living community of believers founded upon St. Peter and the Apostles and headed by their successors – called "the pillar and ground of the truth.”
Of course, this passage is not meant in any way to diminish the importance of the Bible, but it is intending to show that Jesus Christ did establish an authoritative and teaching Church which was commissioned to teach "all nations." (Matt. 28:19).
Elsewhere this same Church received Christ’s promise that the gates of hell would not prevail against it (Matt. 16:18).
That He would always be with it (Matt. 28:20).
And that He would give it the Holy Spirit to teach it all truth. (John 16:13).
To the visible head of His Church, St. Peter, Our Lord said: "And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven.
And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven:
And, whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven." (Matt. 16:19).
It is plainly evident from these passages that Our Lord emphasized the authority of His Church and the role it would have in safeguarding and defining the Deposit of Faith.
It is also evident from these passages that this same Church would be infallible, for if at any time in its history it would definitively teach error to the Church as a whole in matters of faith or morals – even temporarily – it would cease being this "pillar and ground of the truth."
Since a "ground" or foundation by its very nature is meant to be a permanent support, and since the above-mentioned passages do not allow fro the possibility of the Church ever definitively teaching doctrinal or moral error.
The only plausible conclusion is that Our Lord was very deliberate in establishing His Church and that He was referring to its infallibility when He called it the "pillar and ground of the truth."
The Protestant, however, has a dilemma here by asserting the Bible to be the sole rule of faith for believers.
In what capacity, then, is the Church the "pillar and ground of the truth" if it is not to serve as an infallible authority established by Christ?
How can the Church be this "pillar and ground" if it has no tangible, practical ability to serve as an authority in the life of a Christian?
The Protestant would effectively deny that the Church is the "pillar and ground of the truth" by denying that the Church has the authority to teach.
Also, Protestants understand the term "church" to mean something different from what the Catholic Church understands it to mean.
Protestants see "the church" as an invisible entity, and for them it refers collectively to all Christian believers around the world who are united by faith in Christ.
Despite major variations in doctrine and denominational allegiance.
Catholics, on the other hand, understand it to mean not only those true believers who are united as Christ’s Mystical Body.
But we simultaneously understand it to refer to a visible, historical entity as well.
Namely, that one – and only that one – organization which can trace its lineage in an unbroken line back to the Apostles themselves:
The Catholic Church.
It is this Church and this Church alone which was established by Christ and which has maintained an absolute consistency in doctrine throughout its existence.
And it is therefore this Church alone which can claim to be that very "pillar and ground of the truth.”
Protestantism, by comparison, has known a history of doctrinal vacillations and changes, and no two denominations completely agree. –
Even on major doctrinal issues.
Such shifting and changing could not possibly be considered a foundation or "ground of the truth." ?
When the foundation of a structure shifts or is improperly set, that structure’s very support is unreliable (cf. Matt. 7:26-27).
Since in practice the beliefs of Protestantism have undergone change both within denominations and through the continued appearance of new 51,000 thousand denominations.
We Need to Stop Saying That There Are 33,000 Protestant Denominations
http://www.ncregister.com/blog/scottericalt/we-need-to-stop-saying-that-there-are-33000-protestant-denominations
These beliefs are like a foundation which shifts and moves.
Such beliefs therefore cease to provide the support necessary to maintain the structure they uphold.
And the integrity of that structure becomes compromised.
Our Lord Jesus Christ clearly did not intend for His followers to build their spiritual houses on such an unreliable foundation.
(End Part 3)
3. The Bible Calls the Church and not the Bible the "Pillar and Ground of the Truth.”
It is very interesting to note that in:
I Timothy 3:15 we see, not the Bible, but the Church – that is, the living community of believers founded upon St. Peter and the Apostles and headed by their successors – called "the pillar and ground of the truth.”
Of course, this passage is not meant in any way to diminish the importance of the Bible, but it is intending to show that Jesus Christ did establish an authoritative and teaching Church which was commissioned to teach "all nations." (Matt. 28:19).
Elsewhere this same Church received Christ’s promise that the gates of hell would not prevail against it (Matt. 16:18).
That He would always be with it (Matt. 28:20).
And that He would give it the Holy Spirit to teach it all truth. (John 16:13).
To the visible head of His Church, St. Peter, Our Lord said: "And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven.
And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven:
And, whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven." (Matt. 16:19).
It is plainly evident from these passages that Our Lord emphasized the authority of His Church and the role it would have in safeguarding and defining the Deposit of Faith.
It is also evident from these passages that this same Church would be infallible, for if at any time in its history it would definitively teach error to the Church as a whole in matters of faith or morals – even temporarily – it would cease being this "pillar and ground of the truth."
Since a "ground" or foundation by its very nature is meant to be a permanent support, and since the above-mentioned passages do not allow fro the possibility of the Church ever definitively teaching doctrinal or moral error.
The only plausible conclusion is that Our Lord was very deliberate in establishing His Church and that He was referring to its infallibility when He called it the "pillar and ground of the truth."
The Protestant, however, has a dilemma here by asserting the Bible to be the sole rule of faith for believers.
In what capacity, then, is the Church the "pillar and ground of the truth" if it is not to serve as an infallible authority established by Christ?
How can the Church be this "pillar and ground" if it has no tangible, practical ability to serve as an authority in the life of a Christian?
The Protestant would effectively deny that the Church is the "pillar and ground of the truth" by denying that the Church has the authority to teach.
Also, Protestants understand the term "church" to mean something different from what the Catholic Church understands it to mean.
Protestants see "the church" as an invisible entity, and for them it refers collectively to all Christian believers around the world who are united by faith in Christ.
Despite major variations in doctrine and denominational allegiance.
Catholics, on the other hand, understand it to mean not only those true believers who are united as Christ’s Mystical Body.
But we simultaneously understand it to refer to a visible, historical entity as well.
Namely, that one – and only that one – organization which can trace its lineage in an unbroken line back to the Apostles themselves:
The Catholic Church.
It is this Church and this Church alone which was established by Christ and which has maintained an absolute consistency in doctrine throughout its existence.
And it is therefore this Church alone which can claim to be that very "pillar and ground of the truth.”
Protestantism, by comparison, has known a history of doctrinal vacillations and changes, and no two denominations completely agree. –
Even on major doctrinal issues.
Such shifting and changing could not possibly be considered a foundation or "ground of the truth." ?
When the foundation of a structure shifts or is improperly set, that structure’s very support is unreliable (cf. Matt. 7:26-27).
Since in practice the beliefs of Protestantism have undergone change both within denominations and through the continued appearance of new 51,000 thousand denominations.
We Need to Stop Saying That There Are 33,000 Protestant Denominations
http://www.ncregister.com/blog/scottericalt/we-need-to-stop-saying-that-there-are-33000-protestant-denominations
These beliefs are like a foundation which shifts and moves.
Such beliefs therefore cease to provide the support necessary to maintain the structure they uphold.
And the integrity of that structure becomes compromised.
Our Lord Jesus Christ clearly did not intend for His followers to build their spiritual houses on such an unreliable foundation.
(End Part 3)
Dec 7, 2017 19:18:09 #
12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 4 of 21)
4. Christ tells us to submit to the Authority of the Church
In Matthew 18:15-18 we see Christ instructing His disciples on how to correct a fellow believer.
It is extremely telling in this instance that Our Lord identifies the Church.
Rather than Scripture as the final authority to be appealed to.
He Himself says that if an offending brother "will not hear the Church, let him be to thee as the heathen and publican"
(Matt. 18:17) – that is, as an outsider who is lost.
Moreover, Our Lord then solemnly re-emphasizes the Church’s infallible teaching authority in verse
18 by repeating His earlier statement about the power to bind and loose (Matt. 16:18-19).
Directing it this time to the Apostles as a group (7) rather than just to Peter:
"Amen I say to you, whatsoever you shall bind upon earth, shall be bound also in heaven;
And whatsoever you shall loose upon earth, shall be loosed also in heaven." (Matt. 18:18).
Of course there are instances in the Bible where Our Lord does appeal to Scripture.
But in these cases He, as one having authority, was teaching the Scriptures;
He was not allowing the Scriptures to teach themselves.
For example;
He would respond to the Scribes and the Pharisees by using Scripture precisely because they often tried to trip Him up by using Scripture.
In these instances, Our Lord often demonstrates how the Scribes and Pharisees had wrong interpretations, and hence He corrects them by properly interpreting Scripture.
a. His actions do not argue that Scripture should be (Sola Scriptura).
b. Or an authority in itself and, in fact, the only Christian authority.
Quite the contrary;
Whenever Christ refers His hearers to the Scriptures, He also provides His infallible, authoritative interpretation of them, demonstrating that the Scriptures do not interpret themselves.
The Catholic Church readily acknowledges the inerrancy and authority of Scripture.
But the Catholic doctrine is that the immediate rule of faith for the Christian is the teaching authority of the Church. –
An authority to teach and interpret both Scripture and Tradition, as Matt. 18:17-18 shows.
It should also be noted that implicit (perhaps even explicit) in this passage from Matthew.
Is the fact that the "Church" must have been a visible, tangible entity established in a hierarchical fashion.
Otherwise, how would anyone have known to whom the wrongdoer should be referred?
If the Protestant definition of "church" were correct.
Then the wrongdoer would have to "hear" each and every believer who existed, hoping that there would be unanimity among them regarding the issue at hand.
The inherent absurdity of this scenario is readily apparent.
The only way we can make sense of Our Lord’s statement here is to acknowledge that here was a definite organization.
To which an appeal could be made and from which a decisive judgment could be had.
(End Part 4)
4. Christ tells us to submit to the Authority of the Church
In Matthew 18:15-18 we see Christ instructing His disciples on how to correct a fellow believer.
It is extremely telling in this instance that Our Lord identifies the Church.
Rather than Scripture as the final authority to be appealed to.
He Himself says that if an offending brother "will not hear the Church, let him be to thee as the heathen and publican"
(Matt. 18:17) – that is, as an outsider who is lost.
Moreover, Our Lord then solemnly re-emphasizes the Church’s infallible teaching authority in verse
18 by repeating His earlier statement about the power to bind and loose (Matt. 16:18-19).
Directing it this time to the Apostles as a group (7) rather than just to Peter:
"Amen I say to you, whatsoever you shall bind upon earth, shall be bound also in heaven;
And whatsoever you shall loose upon earth, shall be loosed also in heaven." (Matt. 18:18).
Of course there are instances in the Bible where Our Lord does appeal to Scripture.
But in these cases He, as one having authority, was teaching the Scriptures;
He was not allowing the Scriptures to teach themselves.
For example;
He would respond to the Scribes and the Pharisees by using Scripture precisely because they often tried to trip Him up by using Scripture.
In these instances, Our Lord often demonstrates how the Scribes and Pharisees had wrong interpretations, and hence He corrects them by properly interpreting Scripture.
a. His actions do not argue that Scripture should be (Sola Scriptura).
b. Or an authority in itself and, in fact, the only Christian authority.
Quite the contrary;
Whenever Christ refers His hearers to the Scriptures, He also provides His infallible, authoritative interpretation of them, demonstrating that the Scriptures do not interpret themselves.
The Catholic Church readily acknowledges the inerrancy and authority of Scripture.
But the Catholic doctrine is that the immediate rule of faith for the Christian is the teaching authority of the Church. –
An authority to teach and interpret both Scripture and Tradition, as Matt. 18:17-18 shows.
It should also be noted that implicit (perhaps even explicit) in this passage from Matthew.
Is the fact that the "Church" must have been a visible, tangible entity established in a hierarchical fashion.
Otherwise, how would anyone have known to whom the wrongdoer should be referred?
If the Protestant definition of "church" were correct.
Then the wrongdoer would have to "hear" each and every believer who existed, hoping that there would be unanimity among them regarding the issue at hand.
The inherent absurdity of this scenario is readily apparent.
The only way we can make sense of Our Lord’s statement here is to acknowledge that here was a definite organization.
To which an appeal could be made and from which a decisive judgment could be had.
(End Part 4)
Dec 7, 2017 19:18:34 #
12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 5 of 21)
5 Scripture itself states that it is insufficient of itself as a teacher, but rather needs an interpreter.
The Bible says in 2 Tim. 3:17 that the man of God is "perfect, furnished to every good work."
As we noted above, this verse means only that the man of God is fully supplied with Scripture;
It is not a guarantee that he automatically knows how to interpret it properly.
This verse at most argues only for the material sufficiency of Scripture, a position which is held by some Catholic thinkers today.
“Material sufficiency" would mean that the Bible in some way contains all the truths that are necessary for the believer to know;
In other words, the "materials" would thus be all present or at least implied.
"Formal sufficiency," on the other hand, would mean that the Bible would not only contain all the truths that are necessary.
But that it would also present those truths in a perfectly clear and complete and readily understandable fashion.
In other words, these truths would be in a useable form.”
a. And consequently there would be no need for Sacred Tradition to clarify.
b. And complete them or for an infallible teaching authority to interpret them correctly or "rightly divide" God’s word.
Since the Catholic Church holds that the Bible is not sufficient in itself, it naturally teaches that the Bible needs an interpreter.
The reason the Catholic Church so teaches is twofold:
a. First, because Christ established a living Church to teach with His authority.
He did not simply give His disciples a Bible, whole and entire, and tell them to go out and make copies of it for mass distribution and allow people to come to whatever interpretation they may.
b. Second, the Bible itself states that it needs an interpreter.
Regarding the second point, we read in 2 Peter 3:16 that in St. Paul’s epistles.
There are "certain things hard to be understood, which the unlearned and unstable wrest [distort], as they do also the other scriptures, to their own destruction.”
In this one verse we note three very important things about the Bible and its interpretation:
a) the Bible contains passages which are not readily understandable or clear, a fact which demonstrates the need for an authoritative and infallible teacher to make the passages clear and understandable; (8)
b) it is not only possible that people could "wrest" or distort the meaning of Scripture, but this was, in fact, being done from the very earliest days of the Church; and
c) to distort the meaning of Scripture can result in one’s "destruction," a disastrous fate indeed.
It is obvious from these considerations that St. Peter did not believe the Bible to be the sole rule of faith.
But there is more.
In Acts 8:26-40 we read the account of the deacon St. Philip and the Ethiopian eunuch.
In this scenario, the Holy Spirit leads Philip to approach the Ethiopian when Philip learns that the Ethiopian is reading from the prophet Isaias.
He asks him a very telling question:
"Thinkest thou that thou understandest what thou readest?"
Even more telling is the answer given by the Ethiopian:
"And how can I, unless some man show me?”
Whereas this St. Philip (known as "the Evangelist") is not one of the twelve Apostles.
He was nonetheless someone who was commissioned by the Apostles (cf. Acts 6:6) and who preached the Gospel with authority (cf. Acts 8:4-8).
Consequently, his preaching would reflect legitimate Apostolic teaching.
The point here is that the Ethiopian’s statement verifies the fact that the Bible is not sufficient in itself as a teacher of Christian doctrine.
And people who hear the Word do need an authority to instruct them properly so that they may understand what the Bible says.
If the Bible were indeed sufficient of itself, then the eunuch would not have been ignorant of the meaning of the passage from Isaias.
There is also 2 Peter 1:20:
Which states that "no prophecy of scripture is made by private interpretation."
Here we see the Bible itself stating in no uncertain terms that its prophecies are not a matter for which the individual is to arrive at his own interpretation.
It is also most telling that this verse is preceded by a section on the Apostolic witness (verses 12-18).
And followed by a section on false teachers (chapter 2, verses 1-10).
St. Peter is obviously contrasting genuine, Apostolic teaching with false prophets and false teachers.
And he makes reference to private interpretation as the pivotal point between the two.
The clear implication is that private interpretation is one pathway.
Whereby an individual turns from authentic teaching and begins to follow erroneous teaching.
(End Part 5)
5 Scripture itself states that it is insufficient of itself as a teacher, but rather needs an interpreter.
The Bible says in 2 Tim. 3:17 that the man of God is "perfect, furnished to every good work."
As we noted above, this verse means only that the man of God is fully supplied with Scripture;
It is not a guarantee that he automatically knows how to interpret it properly.
This verse at most argues only for the material sufficiency of Scripture, a position which is held by some Catholic thinkers today.
“Material sufficiency" would mean that the Bible in some way contains all the truths that are necessary for the believer to know;
In other words, the "materials" would thus be all present or at least implied.
"Formal sufficiency," on the other hand, would mean that the Bible would not only contain all the truths that are necessary.
But that it would also present those truths in a perfectly clear and complete and readily understandable fashion.
In other words, these truths would be in a useable form.”
a. And consequently there would be no need for Sacred Tradition to clarify.
b. And complete them or for an infallible teaching authority to interpret them correctly or "rightly divide" God’s word.
Since the Catholic Church holds that the Bible is not sufficient in itself, it naturally teaches that the Bible needs an interpreter.
The reason the Catholic Church so teaches is twofold:
a. First, because Christ established a living Church to teach with His authority.
He did not simply give His disciples a Bible, whole and entire, and tell them to go out and make copies of it for mass distribution and allow people to come to whatever interpretation they may.
b. Second, the Bible itself states that it needs an interpreter.
Regarding the second point, we read in 2 Peter 3:16 that in St. Paul’s epistles.
There are "certain things hard to be understood, which the unlearned and unstable wrest [distort], as they do also the other scriptures, to their own destruction.”
In this one verse we note three very important things about the Bible and its interpretation:
a) the Bible contains passages which are not readily understandable or clear, a fact which demonstrates the need for an authoritative and infallible teacher to make the passages clear and understandable; (8)
b) it is not only possible that people could "wrest" or distort the meaning of Scripture, but this was, in fact, being done from the very earliest days of the Church; and
c) to distort the meaning of Scripture can result in one’s "destruction," a disastrous fate indeed.
It is obvious from these considerations that St. Peter did not believe the Bible to be the sole rule of faith.
But there is more.
In Acts 8:26-40 we read the account of the deacon St. Philip and the Ethiopian eunuch.
In this scenario, the Holy Spirit leads Philip to approach the Ethiopian when Philip learns that the Ethiopian is reading from the prophet Isaias.
He asks him a very telling question:
"Thinkest thou that thou understandest what thou readest?"
Even more telling is the answer given by the Ethiopian:
"And how can I, unless some man show me?”
Whereas this St. Philip (known as "the Evangelist") is not one of the twelve Apostles.
He was nonetheless someone who was commissioned by the Apostles (cf. Acts 6:6) and who preached the Gospel with authority (cf. Acts 8:4-8).
Consequently, his preaching would reflect legitimate Apostolic teaching.
The point here is that the Ethiopian’s statement verifies the fact that the Bible is not sufficient in itself as a teacher of Christian doctrine.
And people who hear the Word do need an authority to instruct them properly so that they may understand what the Bible says.
If the Bible were indeed sufficient of itself, then the eunuch would not have been ignorant of the meaning of the passage from Isaias.
There is also 2 Peter 1:20:
Which states that "no prophecy of scripture is made by private interpretation."
Here we see the Bible itself stating in no uncertain terms that its prophecies are not a matter for which the individual is to arrive at his own interpretation.
It is also most telling that this verse is preceded by a section on the Apostolic witness (verses 12-18).
And followed by a section on false teachers (chapter 2, verses 1-10).
St. Peter is obviously contrasting genuine, Apostolic teaching with false prophets and false teachers.
And he makes reference to private interpretation as the pivotal point between the two.
The clear implication is that private interpretation is one pathway.
Whereby an individual turns from authentic teaching and begins to follow erroneous teaching.
(End Part 5)
Dec 7, 2017 20:26:50 #
Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 6 of 21)
6. The first Christians did not have a Bible
Biblical scholars tell us that the last book of the New Testament was not written until the end of the 1st century A.D., that is, until around the year 100 A.D. (9)
This fact would leave roughly a 65-year gap between Our Lord’s Ascension into Heaven and the completion of the Bible as we know it.
The question that begs to be asked, therefore, is this:
"Who or what served as the final, infallible authority during that time?”
If the Protestant doctrine of Sola Scriptura were true.
Then since the Church existed for a time without the entire written Word of God.
There would have been situations and doctrinal issues which could not have been resolved with finality until all of the New Testament books were complete.
The ship would have been left without a rudder, so to speak, at least for a time.
But this goes contrary to the statements and promises that Our Lord made about His Church. –
Particularly,
"Behold I am with you all days, even to the consummation of the world" (Matt. 28:20). –
Not to mention that He told His disciples:
"I will not leave you orphans." (John 14:18).
This issue is of particular importance, as the first several decades of the Church’s existence were tumultuous.
Persecutions had already begun, believers were being martyred, the new Faith was struggling to grow, and some false teachings had already appeared (cf. Galatians 1:6-9).
If the Bible were the Christian’s only rule of faith, and since the Bible was not fully written. –
Much less settled in terms of its Church Canon –
Until 65 years after Christ’s Ascension, how did the early Church possibly deal with doctrinal questions without an authority on how to proceed?
Now the Protestant may be tempted to offer two possible responses:
a. That the Apostles were temporarily the final authority while the New Testament was being written, and
b. That the Holy Spirit was given to the Church and that His direct guidance is what bridged the time gap between Our Lord’s Ascension and the completion of the New Testament.
Regarding the first response:
a. It is true that Jesus Christ invested the Apostles with His authority;
However, the Bible nowhere indicates that this authority’s active role within the Church would cease with the death of the last Apostle.
Quite the contrary, the Bible record is quite clear in that.
a. It nowhere says that once the last Apostle dies, the written form of God’s Word will become the final authority; and
b. The Apostles clearly chose successors who, in turn, possessed the same authority to "bind and loose."
This is shown in the election of Matthias as a replacement for Judas Iscariot (Cf. Acts 1:15-26) and in St. Paul’s passing on his Apostolic Authority to Timothy and Titus (cf. 2 Timothy 1:6, and Titus 1:5).
If anything:
A Protestant can only gives credence to the Catholic teaching by insisting on the authority of the Apostles.
Regarding the second response: –
That the Holy Spirit’s direct guidance bridged the time gap. –
The problem with such a position is that the direct guidance of the Holy Spirit Himself is an extra-Biblical.
(That is, "Outside of the Bible") source of authority.
Naturally the Bible speaks very clearly of the Holy Spirit’s presence among the believers.
And His role in teaching the disciples "all truth," but if the direct guidance of the Holy Spirit were.
In fact, the ultimate authority during those 65 years, then the history of the Church would have known two successive ultimate authorities:
a. First the direct guidance of the Holy Spirit, with this guidance then being replaced by the Scriptures.
[i[Which would have become Sola Scriptura, or the "only" ultimate authority.
And if this situation of an extra-Biblical ultimate authority is permissible from a Protestant perspective.[/i]
Does this not open the door to the Catholic position, which says that the teaching authority of the Church is the direct ultimate authority. –
Deriving her authority from Christ and her teaching from Scripture and Tradition, guided by the Holy Spirit.
The Holy Spirit was given to the Church by Jesus Christ.
And it is exactly this same Spirit who protects the Church’s visible head, the Pope.
And the teaching authority of the Church by never permitting him or it to lapse into error.
The Catholic believes that Christ indeed did give the Holy Spirit to the Church.
And that the Holy Spirit has always been present in the Church, teaching it all truth (John 16:13).
And continually safeguarding its doctrinal integrity, particularly through the office of the Pope.
Thus the Gospel would still have been preached. –
Authoritatively and infallibly. –
Even if not a single verse of the New Testament had ever been written.
(End Part 6)
6. The first Christians did not have a Bible
Biblical scholars tell us that the last book of the New Testament was not written until the end of the 1st century A.D., that is, until around the year 100 A.D. (9)
This fact would leave roughly a 65-year gap between Our Lord’s Ascension into Heaven and the completion of the Bible as we know it.
The question that begs to be asked, therefore, is this:
"Who or what served as the final, infallible authority during that time?”
If the Protestant doctrine of Sola Scriptura were true.
Then since the Church existed for a time without the entire written Word of God.
There would have been situations and doctrinal issues which could not have been resolved with finality until all of the New Testament books were complete.
The ship would have been left without a rudder, so to speak, at least for a time.
But this goes contrary to the statements and promises that Our Lord made about His Church. –
Particularly,
"Behold I am with you all days, even to the consummation of the world" (Matt. 28:20). –
Not to mention that He told His disciples:
"I will not leave you orphans." (John 14:18).
This issue is of particular importance, as the first several decades of the Church’s existence were tumultuous.
Persecutions had already begun, believers were being martyred, the new Faith was struggling to grow, and some false teachings had already appeared (cf. Galatians 1:6-9).
If the Bible were the Christian’s only rule of faith, and since the Bible was not fully written. –
Much less settled in terms of its Church Canon –
Until 65 years after Christ’s Ascension, how did the early Church possibly deal with doctrinal questions without an authority on how to proceed?
Now the Protestant may be tempted to offer two possible responses:
a. That the Apostles were temporarily the final authority while the New Testament was being written, and
b. That the Holy Spirit was given to the Church and that His direct guidance is what bridged the time gap between Our Lord’s Ascension and the completion of the New Testament.
Regarding the first response:
a. It is true that Jesus Christ invested the Apostles with His authority;
However, the Bible nowhere indicates that this authority’s active role within the Church would cease with the death of the last Apostle.
Quite the contrary, the Bible record is quite clear in that.
a. It nowhere says that once the last Apostle dies, the written form of God’s Word will become the final authority; and
b. The Apostles clearly chose successors who, in turn, possessed the same authority to "bind and loose."
This is shown in the election of Matthias as a replacement for Judas Iscariot (Cf. Acts 1:15-26) and in St. Paul’s passing on his Apostolic Authority to Timothy and Titus (cf. 2 Timothy 1:6, and Titus 1:5).
If anything:
A Protestant can only gives credence to the Catholic teaching by insisting on the authority of the Apostles.
Regarding the second response: –
That the Holy Spirit’s direct guidance bridged the time gap. –
The problem with such a position is that the direct guidance of the Holy Spirit Himself is an extra-Biblical.
(That is, "Outside of the Bible") source of authority.
Naturally the Bible speaks very clearly of the Holy Spirit’s presence among the believers.
And His role in teaching the disciples "all truth," but if the direct guidance of the Holy Spirit were.
In fact, the ultimate authority during those 65 years, then the history of the Church would have known two successive ultimate authorities:
a. First the direct guidance of the Holy Spirit, with this guidance then being replaced by the Scriptures.
[i[Which would have become Sola Scriptura, or the "only" ultimate authority.
And if this situation of an extra-Biblical ultimate authority is permissible from a Protestant perspective.[/i]
Does this not open the door to the Catholic position, which says that the teaching authority of the Church is the direct ultimate authority. –
Deriving her authority from Christ and her teaching from Scripture and Tradition, guided by the Holy Spirit.
The Holy Spirit was given to the Church by Jesus Christ.
And it is exactly this same Spirit who protects the Church’s visible head, the Pope.
And the teaching authority of the Church by never permitting him or it to lapse into error.
The Catholic believes that Christ indeed did give the Holy Spirit to the Church.
And that the Holy Spirit has always been present in the Church, teaching it all truth (John 16:13).
And continually safeguarding its doctrinal integrity, particularly through the office of the Pope.
Thus the Gospel would still have been preached. –
Authoritatively and infallibly. –
Even if not a single verse of the New Testament had ever been written.
(End Part 6)
Dec 7, 2017 21:55:01 #
12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 7 of 21)
7. The Church produced the Bible not vice-versa
The doctrine of Sola Scriptura overlooks –
Or at least grossly underemphasizes –
The fact that the Church came before the Bible, and not the other way around.
It was the Church, in effect, which wrote the Bible under the inspiration of Almighty God:
The Israelites as the Old Testament Church (or "pre-Catholics") and the early Catholics as the New Testament Church.
In the pages of the New Testament we note that Our Lord gives a certain primacy to the teaching authority of His Church and its proclamation in His name.
For instance, in Matthew 28:20
We see Our Lord commissioning the Apostles to go and teach in His name, making disciples of all nations.
In Mark 16:15 we note that the Apostles are commanded to go and preach to all the world.
And in Luke 10:16 We see that whoever hears the seventy-two hears Our Lord.
These facts are most telling, as nowhere do we see Our Lord commissioning His Apostles to evangelize the world by writing in His name.
The emphasis is always on preaching the Gospel, not on printing and distributing it.
Thus it follows that the leadership and teaching authority of the Church are indispensable elements in the means whereby the Gospel message is to reach the ends of the earth.
Since the Church produced the scriptures, it is quite biblical, logical and reasonable to say that the Church alone has the authority to interpret properly and apply them.
And if this is so, then by reason of its origin and nature, the Bible cannot serve as the only rule of faith for Christian believers.
In other words, by producing the Scriptures, the Church does not eliminate the need for itself as teacher and interpreter of those Scriptures.
Moreover, is it not unreasonable to say that simply by putting Apostolic teaching into writing, the Church somehow made that written teaching superior to her oral teaching?
Like the teaching organization Our Lord established, His Word is authoritative.
But because the word is one form rather than another does not mean one form is to be subjugated to the other.
Since God’s one Revelation is twofold in form, to deny the authority of one form would be to deny the authority of the other form as well.
The forms of God’s Word are complementary, not competitive.
Thus, if there is a need for the Scriptures, there is also a need for the teaching authority which produced them.
(End Part 7)
7. The Church produced the Bible not vice-versa
The doctrine of Sola Scriptura overlooks –
Or at least grossly underemphasizes –
The fact that the Church came before the Bible, and not the other way around.
It was the Church, in effect, which wrote the Bible under the inspiration of Almighty God:
The Israelites as the Old Testament Church (or "pre-Catholics") and the early Catholics as the New Testament Church.
In the pages of the New Testament we note that Our Lord gives a certain primacy to the teaching authority of His Church and its proclamation in His name.
For instance, in Matthew 28:20
We see Our Lord commissioning the Apostles to go and teach in His name, making disciples of all nations.
In Mark 16:15 we note that the Apostles are commanded to go and preach to all the world.
And in Luke 10:16 We see that whoever hears the seventy-two hears Our Lord.
These facts are most telling, as nowhere do we see Our Lord commissioning His Apostles to evangelize the world by writing in His name.
The emphasis is always on preaching the Gospel, not on printing and distributing it.
Thus it follows that the leadership and teaching authority of the Church are indispensable elements in the means whereby the Gospel message is to reach the ends of the earth.
Since the Church produced the scriptures, it is quite biblical, logical and reasonable to say that the Church alone has the authority to interpret properly and apply them.
And if this is so, then by reason of its origin and nature, the Bible cannot serve as the only rule of faith for Christian believers.
In other words, by producing the Scriptures, the Church does not eliminate the need for itself as teacher and interpreter of those Scriptures.
Moreover, is it not unreasonable to say that simply by putting Apostolic teaching into writing, the Church somehow made that written teaching superior to her oral teaching?
Like the teaching organization Our Lord established, His Word is authoritative.
But because the word is one form rather than another does not mean one form is to be subjugated to the other.
Since God’s one Revelation is twofold in form, to deny the authority of one form would be to deny the authority of the other form as well.
The forms of God’s Word are complementary, not competitive.
Thus, if there is a need for the Scriptures, there is also a need for the teaching authority which produced them.
(End Part 7)
Dec 7, 2017 22:14:29 #
12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 8 of 21)
8. The idea of the Scripture's Authority existing apart from the authority of the Teacher Church is utterly foreign to the Early Church.
If you look at the writings of the Early Church Fathers, you will see references to the Apostolic Succession. (10)
To the bishops as guardians of the Deposit of Faith, (11) and to the primacy and the authority of Rome. (12)
The collective weight of these references makes clear the fact that the early Church understood itself has having a hierarchy which was central to maintaining the integrity of the Faith.
Nowhere do we see any indication that the early followers of Christ disregarded those positions of authority and considered them invalid as a rule of faith.
Quite the contrary, we see in those passages that the Church, from its very inception, saw its power to teach grounded in an inseparable combination of Scripture and Apostolic Tradition. –
With both being authoritatively taught and interpreted by the teaching Magisterium of the Church, with the Bishop of Rome at its head.
To say that the early Church believed in the notion of "the Bible alone.”
Would be analogous to saying that men and women today could entertain the thought that our civil laws could function without Congress to legislate them.
Without courts to interpret them and without police to enforce them.
All we would need is a sufficient supply of legal volumes in every household so that each citizen could determine for himself how to understand and apply any given law.
Such an assertion is absurd, of course, as no one could possibly expect civil laws to function in this manner.
The consequence of such a state of affairs would undoubtedly be total anarchy.
How much more absurd, then, is it to contend that the Bible could function on its own and apart from the Church which wrote it?
It is precisely that Church –
And not just any Christian –
Who alone possesses the divinely given authority to interpret it correctly, as well as to legislate matters involving the conduct of its members.
Were this not the case, the situation on any level –
Local, regional or global –
Would quickly devolve into spiritual anarchy, wherein each and every Christian could formulate a theological system and develop a moral code based simply upon his own private interpretation of Scripture.
Has not history actually seen precisely this result since the 16th century ?
When the so-called Reformation occurred?
In fact, an examination of the state of affairs in Europe immediately following the genesis of the Reformation –
Particularly in Germany –
Will demonstrate that the direct result of Reformation teaching was both spiritual and social disorder. (13)
Luther himself bemoaned the fact that, "Unfortunately, it is our daily experience that now under the Gospel [his].
The people entertain greater and bitterer hatred and envy and are worse with their avarice and money-grabbing than before under the Papacy." (14)
(End Part 8)
8. The idea of the Scripture's Authority existing apart from the authority of the Teacher Church is utterly foreign to the Early Church.
If you look at the writings of the Early Church Fathers, you will see references to the Apostolic Succession. (10)
To the bishops as guardians of the Deposit of Faith, (11) and to the primacy and the authority of Rome. (12)
The collective weight of these references makes clear the fact that the early Church understood itself has having a hierarchy which was central to maintaining the integrity of the Faith.
Nowhere do we see any indication that the early followers of Christ disregarded those positions of authority and considered them invalid as a rule of faith.
Quite the contrary, we see in those passages that the Church, from its very inception, saw its power to teach grounded in an inseparable combination of Scripture and Apostolic Tradition. –
With both being authoritatively taught and interpreted by the teaching Magisterium of the Church, with the Bishop of Rome at its head.
To say that the early Church believed in the notion of "the Bible alone.”
Would be analogous to saying that men and women today could entertain the thought that our civil laws could function without Congress to legislate them.
Without courts to interpret them and without police to enforce them.
All we would need is a sufficient supply of legal volumes in every household so that each citizen could determine for himself how to understand and apply any given law.
Such an assertion is absurd, of course, as no one could possibly expect civil laws to function in this manner.
The consequence of such a state of affairs would undoubtedly be total anarchy.
How much more absurd, then, is it to contend that the Bible could function on its own and apart from the Church which wrote it?
It is precisely that Church –
And not just any Christian –
Who alone possesses the divinely given authority to interpret it correctly, as well as to legislate matters involving the conduct of its members.
Were this not the case, the situation on any level –
Local, regional or global –
Would quickly devolve into spiritual anarchy, wherein each and every Christian could formulate a theological system and develop a moral code based simply upon his own private interpretation of Scripture.
Has not history actually seen precisely this result since the 16th century ?
When the so-called Reformation occurred?
In fact, an examination of the state of affairs in Europe immediately following the genesis of the Reformation –
Particularly in Germany –
Will demonstrate that the direct result of Reformation teaching was both spiritual and social disorder. (13)
Luther himself bemoaned the fact that, "Unfortunately, it is our daily experience that now under the Gospel [his].
The people entertain greater and bitterer hatred and envy and are worse with their avarice and money-grabbing than before under the Papacy." (14)
(End Part 8)
Dec 7, 2017 22:55:34 #
12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 9 of 21)
9. Heresiarchs and heretical movements based their doctrines on Scripture interpreted apart from Tradition and the Magisterium.
If you look at the history of the early Church, you will see that it continually struggled against heresies and those who promoted them.
We also see the Church responding to those threats again and again by convening Councils. (15)
And turning to Rome to settle disputes in matters of doctrine and discipline.
For example, Pope Clement intervened in a controversy in the Church at Corinth at the end of the 1st century and put an end to a schism there.
In the 2nd century, Pope Victor threatened to excommunicate a large portion of the Church in the East because of a dispute about when Easter should be celebrated.
In the earlier part of the 3rd century, Pope Callistus pronounced the condemnation of the Sabellian heresy.
In the case of these heresies and/or conflicts in discipline that would arise.
The people involved would defend their erroneous beliefs by their respective interpretations of Scripture.
Apart from the Sacred Tradition and the teaching Magisterium of the Church.
A good illustration of this point is the case of Arius, the 4th-century priest who declared that the Son of God was a creature and was not co-equal with the Father.
Arius and those who followed him quoted verses from the Bible to "prove" their claims. (16)
The disputes and controversies which arose over his teachings became so great that the first Ecumenical Council was convened in Nicaea in 325 A.D. to settle them.
The Council, under the authority of the Pope, declared Arius’ teachings to be heretical and made some decisive declarations about the Person of Christ.
And it did so based on what Sacred Tradition had to say regarding the Scripture verses in question.
Here we see the teaching authority of the Church being used as the final say in an extremely important doctrinal matter.
If there had been no teaching authority to appeal to, then Arius’ error could have overtaken the Church.
As it is, a majority of the bishops at the time fell for the Arian heresy. (17)
Even though Arius had based his arguments on the Bible and probably "compared Scripture with Scripture," the fact is that he arrived at an heretical conclusion.
It was the teaching authority of the Church –
Hierarchically constituted – which stepped in and declared he was wrong.
The application is obvious.
If you ask a Protestant whether or not Arius was correct in his belief that the Son was created, he will, of course, respond in the negative.
Emphasize, then, that even though Arius presumably "compared Scripture with Scripture," he nonetheless arrived at an erroneous conclusion.
If this were true for Arius, what guarantee does the Protestant have that it is not also true for his interpretation of a given Bible passage?
The very fact that the Protestant knows Arius’ interpretations were heretical implies that an objectively true or "right" interpretation exists for the Biblical passages he used.
The issue, then, becomes a question of how we can know what that true interpretation is.
The only possible answer is that there must be, out of necessity, an infallible authority to tell us.
That infallible authority, the Catholic Church, declared Arius heretical.
Had the Catholic Church not been both infallible and authoritative in its declaration.
Then believers would have had no reason whatsoever to reject Arius’ teachings
And the whole of Christianity today might have been comprised of modern-day Arians.
It is evident, then, that using the Bible alone is not a guarantee of arriving at doctrinal truth.
The above-described result is what happens when the erroneous doctrine of Sola Scriptura is used as a guiding principle.
And the history of the Church and the numerous heresies it has had to address are undeniable testimony to this fact.
(End Part 9)
9. Heresiarchs and heretical movements based their doctrines on Scripture interpreted apart from Tradition and the Magisterium.
If you look at the history of the early Church, you will see that it continually struggled against heresies and those who promoted them.
We also see the Church responding to those threats again and again by convening Councils. (15)
And turning to Rome to settle disputes in matters of doctrine and discipline.
For example, Pope Clement intervened in a controversy in the Church at Corinth at the end of the 1st century and put an end to a schism there.
In the 2nd century, Pope Victor threatened to excommunicate a large portion of the Church in the East because of a dispute about when Easter should be celebrated.
In the earlier part of the 3rd century, Pope Callistus pronounced the condemnation of the Sabellian heresy.
In the case of these heresies and/or conflicts in discipline that would arise.
The people involved would defend their erroneous beliefs by their respective interpretations of Scripture.
Apart from the Sacred Tradition and the teaching Magisterium of the Church.
A good illustration of this point is the case of Arius, the 4th-century priest who declared that the Son of God was a creature and was not co-equal with the Father.
Arius and those who followed him quoted verses from the Bible to "prove" their claims. (16)
The disputes and controversies which arose over his teachings became so great that the first Ecumenical Council was convened in Nicaea in 325 A.D. to settle them.
The Council, under the authority of the Pope, declared Arius’ teachings to be heretical and made some decisive declarations about the Person of Christ.
And it did so based on what Sacred Tradition had to say regarding the Scripture verses in question.
Here we see the teaching authority of the Church being used as the final say in an extremely important doctrinal matter.
If there had been no teaching authority to appeal to, then Arius’ error could have overtaken the Church.
As it is, a majority of the bishops at the time fell for the Arian heresy. (17)
Even though Arius had based his arguments on the Bible and probably "compared Scripture with Scripture," the fact is that he arrived at an heretical conclusion.
It was the teaching authority of the Church –
Hierarchically constituted – which stepped in and declared he was wrong.
The application is obvious.
If you ask a Protestant whether or not Arius was correct in his belief that the Son was created, he will, of course, respond in the negative.
Emphasize, then, that even though Arius presumably "compared Scripture with Scripture," he nonetheless arrived at an erroneous conclusion.
If this were true for Arius, what guarantee does the Protestant have that it is not also true for his interpretation of a given Bible passage?
The very fact that the Protestant knows Arius’ interpretations were heretical implies that an objectively true or "right" interpretation exists for the Biblical passages he used.
The issue, then, becomes a question of how we can know what that true interpretation is.
The only possible answer is that there must be, out of necessity, an infallible authority to tell us.
That infallible authority, the Catholic Church, declared Arius heretical.
Had the Catholic Church not been both infallible and authoritative in its declaration.
Then believers would have had no reason whatsoever to reject Arius’ teachings
And the whole of Christianity today might have been comprised of modern-day Arians.
It is evident, then, that using the Bible alone is not a guarantee of arriving at doctrinal truth.
The above-described result is what happens when the erroneous doctrine of Sola Scriptura is used as a guiding principle.
And the history of the Church and the numerous heresies it has had to address are undeniable testimony to this fact.
(End Part 9)
Dec 7, 2017 22:56:02 #
12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 10 of 21)
10. The Canon of the Bible was not settled until the 4th Century.
One historical fact which proves extremely convenient for the Protestant is the fact that the canon of the Bible –
The authoritative list of exactly which books are part of inspired Scripture –
Was not settled and fixed until the end of the 4th century.
Until that time, there was much disagreement over which Biblical writings were considered inspired and Apostolic in origin.
The Biblical canon varied from place to place:
Some lists contained books that were later defined as non-canonical, while other lists failed to include books which were later defined as canonical.
For example,:
There were Early Christian writings which were considered by some to be inspired and Apostolic and which were actually read in Christian public worship, but which were later omitted from the New Testament canon.
These include The Shepherd of Hermas, The Epistle of Barnabas, and The Didache, among others. (18)
It was not until the Synod of Rome (382) and the Councils of Hippo (393) and Carthage (397) that we find a definitive list of canonical books being drawn up, and each of these Councils acknowledged the very same list of books. (19)
From this point on, there is in practice no dispute about the canon of the Bible.
The only exception being the so-called Protestant Reformers, who entered upon the scene in 1517, an unbelievable 11 centuries later.
Once again, there are two fundamental questions for which one cannot provide answers that are consonant with Sola Scriptura:
a. Who or what served as the final Christian authority up to the time that the New Testament’s canon was identified?
b. And if there was a final authority that the Protestant recognizes before the establishment of the canon.
On what basis did that authority cease being final once the Bible’s canon was established?
(End Part 10)
10. The Canon of the Bible was not settled until the 4th Century.
One historical fact which proves extremely convenient for the Protestant is the fact that the canon of the Bible –
The authoritative list of exactly which books are part of inspired Scripture –
Was not settled and fixed until the end of the 4th century.
Until that time, there was much disagreement over which Biblical writings were considered inspired and Apostolic in origin.
The Biblical canon varied from place to place:
Some lists contained books that were later defined as non-canonical, while other lists failed to include books which were later defined as canonical.
For example,:
There were Early Christian writings which were considered by some to be inspired and Apostolic and which were actually read in Christian public worship, but which were later omitted from the New Testament canon.
These include The Shepherd of Hermas, The Epistle of Barnabas, and The Didache, among others. (18)
It was not until the Synod of Rome (382) and the Councils of Hippo (393) and Carthage (397) that we find a definitive list of canonical books being drawn up, and each of these Councils acknowledged the very same list of books. (19)
From this point on, there is in practice no dispute about the canon of the Bible.
The only exception being the so-called Protestant Reformers, who entered upon the scene in 1517, an unbelievable 11 centuries later.
Once again, there are two fundamental questions for which one cannot provide answers that are consonant with Sola Scriptura:
a. Who or what served as the final Christian authority up to the time that the New Testament’s canon was identified?
b. And if there was a final authority that the Protestant recognizes before the establishment of the canon.
On what basis did that authority cease being final once the Bible’s canon was established?
(End Part 10)
Dec 7, 2017 23:05:37 #
[b]12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 11 of 21)
11. An "Extra-Biblical" Authority Identified the Canon of the Bible.
Since the Bible did not come with an inspired table of contents.
The doctrine of Sola Scriptura creates yet another dilemma:
How can one know with certainty which books belong in the Bible –
Specifically, in the New Testament?
The unadulterated fact is that one cannot know unless there is an authority outside the Bible which can tell him.
Moreover, this authority must, by necessity, be infallible, since the possibility of error in identifying the canon of the Bible (20)
Would mean that all believers run the risk of having the wrong books in their Bibles, a situation which would vitiate Sola Scriptura.
But if there is such an infallible authority, then the doctrine of Sola Scriptura crumbles.
Another historical fact very difficult to reconcile with the doctrine of Sola Scriptura.
[b]Is that it was none other than the Catholic Church which eventually identified and ratified the canon of the Bible.
The three councils mentioned above were all councils of this Church. The Catholic Church gave its final, definitive, infallible definition of the Biblical canon a the Council of Trent in 1546 –
Naming the very same list of 73 books that had been included in the 4th century.
If the Catholic Church is able, then, to render an authoritative and infallible decision concerning such an important matter as which books belong in the Bible.
Then upon what basis would a person question its authority on other matters of faith and morals?
Protestants should at least concede a point which Martin Luther, their religion’s founder, also conceded, namely.
That the Catholic Church safeguarded and identified the Bible:
"We are obliged to yield many things to the Catholics. –
For example: That they possess the Word of God, which we received from them;
Otherwise, we should have known nothing at all about it." (21)
(End Part 11)
11. An "Extra-Biblical" Authority Identified the Canon of the Bible.
Since the Bible did not come with an inspired table of contents.
The doctrine of Sola Scriptura creates yet another dilemma:
How can one know with certainty which books belong in the Bible –
Specifically, in the New Testament?
The unadulterated fact is that one cannot know unless there is an authority outside the Bible which can tell him.
Moreover, this authority must, by necessity, be infallible, since the possibility of error in identifying the canon of the Bible (20)
Would mean that all believers run the risk of having the wrong books in their Bibles, a situation which would vitiate Sola Scriptura.
But if there is such an infallible authority, then the doctrine of Sola Scriptura crumbles.
Another historical fact very difficult to reconcile with the doctrine of Sola Scriptura.
[b]Is that it was none other than the Catholic Church which eventually identified and ratified the canon of the Bible.
The three councils mentioned above were all councils of this Church. The Catholic Church gave its final, definitive, infallible definition of the Biblical canon a the Council of Trent in 1546 –
Naming the very same list of 73 books that had been included in the 4th century.
If the Catholic Church is able, then, to render an authoritative and infallible decision concerning such an important matter as which books belong in the Bible.
Then upon what basis would a person question its authority on other matters of faith and morals?
Protestants should at least concede a point which Martin Luther, their religion’s founder, also conceded, namely.
That the Catholic Church safeguarded and identified the Bible:
"We are obliged to yield many things to the Catholics. –
For example: That they possess the Word of God, which we received from them;
Otherwise, we should have known nothing at all about it." (21)
(End Part 11)
Dec 8, 2017 03:16:27 #
12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 12 of 21)
12. The Belief that Scripture is "Self-Authenticating" Does Not Hold Up under Examination
Lacking a satisfactory answer to the question of how the canon of the Bible was determined.
Protestants often resort to the notion that Scripture is “self-authenticating."
That is, the books of the Bible witness to themselves that they are inspired of God.
The major problem with such an assertion is simply that even a cursory examination of ecclesial history will demonstrate it to be utterly untrue.
For example, several books from the New Testament –
James, Jude, 2 Peter, 2 John, 3 John, and Revelation –
Were disputed in terms of their canonical status for some time.
In certain places they were accepted, while simultaneously in other s they were rejected.
Even spiritual giants like:
a. St. Athanasius (297-373),
b. St. Jerome (c. 342-420) and
c. St. Augustine (354-430)
Had drawn up lists of New Testament books which witnessed to what was generally acknowledged as inspired in their times and places.
But none of these lists corresponds exactly to the New Testament canon that was eventually identified by the Catholic Church at the end of the 4th century and which is identical to the canon that Catholics have today.(22)
If Scripture were actually “self-authenticating."
Why was there so much disagreement and uncertainty over these various books?
Why was there any disagreement at all?
Why was the canon of the Bible not identified much earlier if the books were allegedly so readily discernible?
The answer that one is compelled to accept in this regard is simply that the Bible is not self-authenticating at all.
Even more interesting is the fact that some books in the Bible do not identify their authors.
The idea of self-authentication –
If it were true –
Might be more plausible if each and every Biblical author identified himself, as we could more easily examine that author’s credentials.
So to speak, or at least determine who it was that claimed to be speaking for God.
But in this regard the Bible leaves us ignorant in a few instances.
Take St. Matthew’s Gospel as one example;
Nowhere does the text indicate that it was Matthew, one of the twelve Apostles, who authored it.
We are therefore left with only two possibilities for determining its authorship:
1) what Tradition has to say,
2) Biblical scholarship.
In either case, the source of determination is an extra-Biblical source and would therefore fall under condemnation by the doctrine of Sola Scriptura.
Now the Protestant may be saying at this point that it is unnecessary to know whether or not St. Matthew actually wrote this Gospel, as one’s salvation does not depend on knowing whether it was Matthew or someone else.
But such a view presents quite a difficulty.
What the Protestant is effectively saying is that while an authentic Gospel is God’s Word and is the means by which a person comes to a saving knowledge of Christ.
The person has no way of knowing for certain in the case of Matthew’s Gospel whether it is Apostolic in origin and consequently has no way of knowing it if its genuine (i.e., God’s Word) or not.
And if this Gospel’s authenticity is questionable, then why include it in the Bible?
If its authenticity is certain, then how is this known in the absence of self-identification by Matthew?
[b]One can only conclude that the Bible is not self-authenticating.[.b]
The Protestant may wish to fall back on the Bible’s own assertion that it is inspired, citing a passage like 2 Timothy 3:16 –
"All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable..."
However, a claim to inspiration is not in and of itself a guarantee of inspiration.
a. Consider the fact that the writings of Mary Baker Eddy, the founder of the Christian Science sect, claim to be inspired.
b. The writings of Joseph Smith, the founder of the Mormon sect, claim to be inspired.
These are but two of many possible examples which demonstrate the that any particular writing can claim just about anything.
Obviously, in order for us to know with certainty whether or not a writing is genuinely inspired, we need more than a mere claim by that writing that it is inspired.
The guarantee of inspiration must come from outside that writing.
In the case of the Bible, the guarantee must come from a non-Biblical source.
But outside authentication is excluded by the doctrine of Sola Scriptura.
(End Part 12)
12. The Belief that Scripture is "Self-Authenticating" Does Not Hold Up under Examination
Lacking a satisfactory answer to the question of how the canon of the Bible was determined.
Protestants often resort to the notion that Scripture is “self-authenticating."
That is, the books of the Bible witness to themselves that they are inspired of God.
The major problem with such an assertion is simply that even a cursory examination of ecclesial history will demonstrate it to be utterly untrue.
For example, several books from the New Testament –
James, Jude, 2 Peter, 2 John, 3 John, and Revelation –
Were disputed in terms of their canonical status for some time.
In certain places they were accepted, while simultaneously in other s they were rejected.
Even spiritual giants like:
a. St. Athanasius (297-373),
b. St. Jerome (c. 342-420) and
c. St. Augustine (354-430)
Had drawn up lists of New Testament books which witnessed to what was generally acknowledged as inspired in their times and places.
But none of these lists corresponds exactly to the New Testament canon that was eventually identified by the Catholic Church at the end of the 4th century and which is identical to the canon that Catholics have today.(22)
If Scripture were actually “self-authenticating."
Why was there so much disagreement and uncertainty over these various books?
Why was there any disagreement at all?
Why was the canon of the Bible not identified much earlier if the books were allegedly so readily discernible?
The answer that one is compelled to accept in this regard is simply that the Bible is not self-authenticating at all.
Even more interesting is the fact that some books in the Bible do not identify their authors.
The idea of self-authentication –
If it were true –
Might be more plausible if each and every Biblical author identified himself, as we could more easily examine that author’s credentials.
So to speak, or at least determine who it was that claimed to be speaking for God.
But in this regard the Bible leaves us ignorant in a few instances.
Take St. Matthew’s Gospel as one example;
Nowhere does the text indicate that it was Matthew, one of the twelve Apostles, who authored it.
We are therefore left with only two possibilities for determining its authorship:
1) what Tradition has to say,
2) Biblical scholarship.
In either case, the source of determination is an extra-Biblical source and would therefore fall under condemnation by the doctrine of Sola Scriptura.
Now the Protestant may be saying at this point that it is unnecessary to know whether or not St. Matthew actually wrote this Gospel, as one’s salvation does not depend on knowing whether it was Matthew or someone else.
But such a view presents quite a difficulty.
What the Protestant is effectively saying is that while an authentic Gospel is God’s Word and is the means by which a person comes to a saving knowledge of Christ.
The person has no way of knowing for certain in the case of Matthew’s Gospel whether it is Apostolic in origin and consequently has no way of knowing it if its genuine (i.e., God’s Word) or not.
And if this Gospel’s authenticity is questionable, then why include it in the Bible?
If its authenticity is certain, then how is this known in the absence of self-identification by Matthew?
[b]One can only conclude that the Bible is not self-authenticating.[.b]
The Protestant may wish to fall back on the Bible’s own assertion that it is inspired, citing a passage like 2 Timothy 3:16 –
"All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable..."
However, a claim to inspiration is not in and of itself a guarantee of inspiration.
a. Consider the fact that the writings of Mary Baker Eddy, the founder of the Christian Science sect, claim to be inspired.
b. The writings of Joseph Smith, the founder of the Mormon sect, claim to be inspired.
These are but two of many possible examples which demonstrate the that any particular writing can claim just about anything.
Obviously, in order for us to know with certainty whether or not a writing is genuinely inspired, we need more than a mere claim by that writing that it is inspired.
The guarantee of inspiration must come from outside that writing.
In the case of the Bible, the guarantee must come from a non-Biblical source.
But outside authentication is excluded by the doctrine of Sola Scriptura.
(End Part 12)
Dec 8, 2017 05:25:25 #
12/7/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 13 of 21)
13. None of the Original Biblical Manuscripts is Extant.
A sobering consideration –
And one which is fatal to the doctrine of Sola Scriptura. –
Is that we do not possess a single original manuscript of any book of the Bible.
Now it is true that there are thousands of manuscripts extant which are copies of the originals –
And more likely than not they are copies of copies –
But this fact does not help the Sola Scriptura position for the simple reason that without original manuscripts, one cannot know with certainty if he actually possesses the real Bible, whole and entire. (23)
The original autographs were inspired, while copies of them are not.
The Protestant may want to assert that not having original Biblical manuscripts is immaterial, as God preserved the Bible by safeguarding its duplication down through the centuries. (24)
However, there are two problems with this line of reasoning.
a. The first is that by maintaining God’s providence with regard to copying, a person claims something which is not written in Scripture, and therefore, by the very definition of Sola Scriptura, cannot serve as a rule of faith.
In other words, if one cannot find passages in the Bible which patently state that God will protect the transmission of manuscripts, then the belief is not to be held.
The fact of the matter is that the Bible makes no such claim.
b. The second problem is that if you can maintain that God safeguarded the written transmission of His Word, then you can also rightly maintain that He safeguarded its oral transmission as well (recall 2 Thessalonians 2:14 [15]
And the twofold form of God’s one revelation).
After all, the preaching of the Gospel began as an oral tradition (cf. Luke 1:1-4 and Rom. 10:17).
It was not until later on that some of the oral tradition was committed to writing –
Becoming Sacred Scripture –
And it was later still that these writings were declared to be inspired and authoritative.
Once you can maintain that God safeguarded the oral transmission of His teaching.
You have demonstrated the basis for Sacred Tradition and have already begun supporting the Catholic position.
(End Part 13)
13. None of the Original Biblical Manuscripts is Extant.
A sobering consideration –
And one which is fatal to the doctrine of Sola Scriptura. –
Is that we do not possess a single original manuscript of any book of the Bible.
Now it is true that there are thousands of manuscripts extant which are copies of the originals –
And more likely than not they are copies of copies –
But this fact does not help the Sola Scriptura position for the simple reason that without original manuscripts, one cannot know with certainty if he actually possesses the real Bible, whole and entire. (23)
The original autographs were inspired, while copies of them are not.
The Protestant may want to assert that not having original Biblical manuscripts is immaterial, as God preserved the Bible by safeguarding its duplication down through the centuries. (24)
However, there are two problems with this line of reasoning.
a. The first is that by maintaining God’s providence with regard to copying, a person claims something which is not written in Scripture, and therefore, by the very definition of Sola Scriptura, cannot serve as a rule of faith.
In other words, if one cannot find passages in the Bible which patently state that God will protect the transmission of manuscripts, then the belief is not to be held.
The fact of the matter is that the Bible makes no such claim.
b. The second problem is that if you can maintain that God safeguarded the written transmission of His Word, then you can also rightly maintain that He safeguarded its oral transmission as well (recall 2 Thessalonians 2:14 [15]
And the twofold form of God’s one revelation).
After all, the preaching of the Gospel began as an oral tradition (cf. Luke 1:1-4 and Rom. 10:17).
It was not until later on that some of the oral tradition was committed to writing –
Becoming Sacred Scripture –
And it was later still that these writings were declared to be inspired and authoritative.
Once you can maintain that God safeguarded the oral transmission of His teaching.
You have demonstrated the basis for Sacred Tradition and have already begun supporting the Catholic position.
(End Part 13)
Dec 8, 2017 05:32:30 #
12/07/2017 Twenty One Reasons to Reject Sola Scriptura (Part 14 of 21)
14. The Biblical Manuscripts Contain Thousands of Variations
It has just been noted that there are thousands of Biblical manuscripts in existence;
These manuscripts contain thousands of variations in the text;
One writer estimates that there are over 200,000 variations. (25)
Whereas the majority of these deal with minor concerns –
Such as spelling, word order and the like –
There are also variations of a more important nature:
a. The manuscript evidence shows that scribes sometimes modified the Biblical texts to harmonize passages, to accommodate them to historical fact, and to establish a doctrinal correctness; (26) and
b. There are portions of verses (i.e., more than just a single word in question) for which there are several different manuscript readings, such as John 7:39, Acts 6:8, Colossians 2:2 and 1 Thessalonians 3:2. (27)
These facts leave the Protestant in the position of not knowing if he possesses what the Biblical authors originally wrote.
And if this is the case, then how can a Protestant profess to base his beliefs solely on the Bible when he cannot determine with certainty the textual authenticity of the Bible? (28)
More importantly, there are several more major textual variations among New Testament manuscripts.
The following two examples will illustrate the point:
a. First, according to the manuscripts that we have, there are four possible endings for Mark’s Gospel:
1. The short ending, which includes verses 1-8 of chapter 16;
2. The longer ending, which includes verses 1-8 plus verses 9-20;
3. The intermediate ending, which includes 2 to 3 lines of text between verse 8 and the longer ending;
4. And the longer ending in expanded form, which includes several verses after verse 14 of the longer ending. (29)
The best that can be said about these different endings is that we simply do not know for certain, from the Bible itself, where St. Mark’s Gospel concluded, and, depending on which ending(s).
Is/are included in a Protestant’s Bible, the publisher runs the risk of either adding verses to or omitting verses from the original text. –
Thus violating the doctrine of Sola Scriptura, which requires "the Bible alone and in its entirety" as the basis of faith.
Even if a Protestant’s Bible includes all four endings with explanatory comments and/or footnotes, he still cannot be certain which of the four endings is genuine.
b. Second, there is manuscript evidence for alternate readings in some pivotal verses of the Bible, such as John 1:18.
Where there are two possible wordings. (30)
Some (such as the King James Version) read along the lines of the Douay-Rheims:
1. ”No man hath seen God at any time:
2. The only begotten Son Who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”
Either wording is substantiated by manuscript evidence, and you will therefore find Biblical scholars relying on their best educated judgment as to which one is "correct."
A similar situation occurs at Acts 20:28.
Where the manuscript evidence shows that Saint Paul could be referring to either the "church of the Lord" (Greek kuriou) or the "church of God" (Greek theou). (31)
Now this point may seem trivial at first, but suppose you are trying to evangelize a cult member who denies the divinity of Jesus Christ.
While John 1:18 and Acts 20:28 are clearly not the only passages to use in defense of Our Lord’s divinity.
You still may be unable to utilize these verses with that person, depending on which manuscript tradition your Bible follows.
That would leave you marginally less able to defend a major Biblical doctrine.
And the very nature of this fact become quite problematic from the perspective of the doctrine of Sola Scriptura.
(End Part 14)
14. The Biblical Manuscripts Contain Thousands of Variations
It has just been noted that there are thousands of Biblical manuscripts in existence;
These manuscripts contain thousands of variations in the text;
One writer estimates that there are over 200,000 variations. (25)
Whereas the majority of these deal with minor concerns –
Such as spelling, word order and the like –
There are also variations of a more important nature:
a. The manuscript evidence shows that scribes sometimes modified the Biblical texts to harmonize passages, to accommodate them to historical fact, and to establish a doctrinal correctness; (26) and
b. There are portions of verses (i.e., more than just a single word in question) for which there are several different manuscript readings, such as John 7:39, Acts 6:8, Colossians 2:2 and 1 Thessalonians 3:2. (27)
These facts leave the Protestant in the position of not knowing if he possesses what the Biblical authors originally wrote.
And if this is the case, then how can a Protestant profess to base his beliefs solely on the Bible when he cannot determine with certainty the textual authenticity of the Bible? (28)
More importantly, there are several more major textual variations among New Testament manuscripts.
The following two examples will illustrate the point:
a. First, according to the manuscripts that we have, there are four possible endings for Mark’s Gospel:
1. The short ending, which includes verses 1-8 of chapter 16;
2. The longer ending, which includes verses 1-8 plus verses 9-20;
3. The intermediate ending, which includes 2 to 3 lines of text between verse 8 and the longer ending;
4. And the longer ending in expanded form, which includes several verses after verse 14 of the longer ending. (29)
The best that can be said about these different endings is that we simply do not know for certain, from the Bible itself, where St. Mark’s Gospel concluded, and, depending on which ending(s).
Is/are included in a Protestant’s Bible, the publisher runs the risk of either adding verses to or omitting verses from the original text. –
Thus violating the doctrine of Sola Scriptura, which requires "the Bible alone and in its entirety" as the basis of faith.
Even if a Protestant’s Bible includes all four endings with explanatory comments and/or footnotes, he still cannot be certain which of the four endings is genuine.
b. Second, there is manuscript evidence for alternate readings in some pivotal verses of the Bible, such as John 1:18.
Where there are two possible wordings. (30)
Some (such as the King James Version) read along the lines of the Douay-Rheims:
1. ”No man hath seen God at any time:
2. The only begotten Son Who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”
Either wording is substantiated by manuscript evidence, and you will therefore find Biblical scholars relying on their best educated judgment as to which one is "correct."
A similar situation occurs at Acts 20:28.
Where the manuscript evidence shows that Saint Paul could be referring to either the "church of the Lord" (Greek kuriou) or the "church of God" (Greek theou). (31)
Now this point may seem trivial at first, but suppose you are trying to evangelize a cult member who denies the divinity of Jesus Christ.
While John 1:18 and Acts 20:28 are clearly not the only passages to use in defense of Our Lord’s divinity.
You still may be unable to utilize these verses with that person, depending on which manuscript tradition your Bible follows.
That would leave you marginally less able to defend a major Biblical doctrine.
And the very nature of this fact become quite problematic from the perspective of the doctrine of Sola Scriptura.
(End Part 14)
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