Show me a map of the area prior to the British Mandate that calls the area Palestine and I will back off. I have found maps that call the area Palastina which is a name the Romans gave to the area, named after the Philistines who were enemies of the Jew.... but I find no reference, even in the bible to Palestine. The bible uses the word Peleshet which also means Philistine.
Only a tiny percentage of land in Palestine was privately owned. The various categories of land ownership included:
Mulk: privately owned in the Western sense.
Miri: Land owned by the government (originally the Ottoman crown) and suitable for agricultural use. Individuals could purchase a deed to cultivate this land and pay a tithe to the government. Ownership could be transferred only with the approval of the state. Miri rights could be transferred to heirs, and the land could be sub-let to tenants. If the owner died without an heir or the land was not cultivated for three years, the land would revert to the state.
Mahlul: Uncultivated Miri lands that would revert to the state, in theory after three years.
Mawat (or Mewat): So-called dead, un-reclaimed land. It constituted about 50 to 60% of the land in Palestine. It belonged to the government. ...If the land had been cultivated with permission, it would be registered, at least under the Mandate, free of charge.
By the early 1940s Jews owned about one third of Mulk land in Palestine and Arabs about two-thirds. The vast majority of the total land, however, belonged to the government, meaning that when the state of Israel was established, it became legally Israel's. Remember, there were no Palestinians in 1947. The implication is that pre-1948 Palestine was an entirely Arab country with no Jews and no Jewish land ownership... and as I have proved, this is incorrect because records show the sale and purchases of land. Also, keep in mind that in 1948 the word "Palestinian" more often than not referred to Palestinian Jews, not Palestinian Arabs. For example, the Palestine exhibit at the 1939 World's Fair was entirely Jewish, the Palestine Orchestra was entirely Jewish, the Palestine soccer team was almost entirely Jewish, and the list goes on.
You are right, the British Mandate did provide a map of the area they promised for a Jewish settlement...see below. Also see the Sykes-Picot map. See the map in Arabic, show me where Palestine is located.
Also, is the word Palestine an Arabic word?
And if what you propose is true, then you should be able to answer the 11 simple questions that I listed not only on this thread but your other thread. You ignored them there, so here is another chance for you to provide responses.
payne1000 wrote:
The MSNBC criticism of the map is based on the false contention that Palestine didn't exist at the time of the British Mandate. This is absurd. The mandate specified definite borders surrounding the land given to Jews. The remaining land was to remain the property of the original owners who were mostly Palestinians. The map accurately shows how much land Zionists have stolen since the mandate was proclaimed.
The two videos you posted have no authors' names given. The article posted by eagleye was authored by Lawrence Davidson, a Jewish professor who has made extensive study of the Middle East and written many articles about what he has learned.
http://www.tothepointanalyses.com/biography.
It should be easy for readers to figure out who the propagandist is in this exchange.
The MSNBC criticism of the map is based on the fal... (
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